1. Which classification of offences comes under the Criminal Procedure Code?
Options:
(A) Cognizable & non-cognizable
(B) Bailable & non-bailable
(C) Summons cases & warrant cases
(D) All of the above
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) classifies offences into: Bailable and non-bailable (whether the accused is entitled to bail as a matter of right or at the court’s discretion), Cognizable and non-cognizable (whether police can arrest without a warrant), and Compoundable and non-compoundable (whether the victim can compromise with the accused to drop charges).
2. Cognizable offence has been defined—
Options:
(A) Under section 2(a) of Cr.P.C.
(B) Under section 2(c) of Cr.P.C.
(C) Under section 2(f) of Cr.P.C.
(D) Under section 2(I) of Cr.P.C.
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) defines a cognizable offence in Section 2(c) as an offence for which a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant or a Magistrate’s approval.
3. Non-cognizable offence has been defined—
Options:
(A) Under section 2(a), Cr.P.C.
(B) Under section 2(e), Cr.P.C.
(C) Under section 2(f), Cr.P.C.
(D) Under section 2(l), Cr.P.C.
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr. P.C.) defines non-cognizable offences under Section 2(l). The 1st Table of the 1st Schedule of Cr. P.C. classifies offences as cognizable or non-cognizable and bailable or non-bailable.
4. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right—
Options:
(A) By the police officer
(B) By the court
(C) Both by the police officer & the court
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
In a bailable offence, the accused can seek bail from the police station or the Magistrate’s court. The arresting officer can also release the accused on bail.
5. Complaint as provided under section 2(d) of Cr.P.C.—
Options:
(A) Can be in writing only
(B) Can be oral
(C) Either in writing or oral
(D) Can be by gestures
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
According to section 2(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, a complaint is an allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with the intention of the Magistrate taking action under the Code, that someone has committed an offence (whether the person is known or unknown). A complaint does not include a police report.
6. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest under—
Options:
(A) Section 56 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 57 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 58 of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 59 of Cr.P.C.
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Section 57 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) states that a person cannot be detained for more than 24 hours after arrest without judicial scrutiny. This does not include the time it takes to travel to the Magistrate’s court.
7. Section 91 of Cr.P.C. does not apply to—
Options:
(A) The complainant
(B) The accused
(C) The Witness
(D) A person who is neither a complainant nor an accused nor a witness
Ans. – (No Answer)
Explanation:
Section 91 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) does not apply to: Items listed in the Indian Evidence Act (Sections 123 and 124), Items in the custody of postal or telegraph authorities, Items listed in the Banker’s Books Evidence Act 1891, Accused persons (the term ‘person’ in Section 91 does not include an accused person in trial), and compelling production of documents at the charge framing stage.
8. A refused to answer questions put to a witness under section 161 of Cr.P.C. is an offence under—
Options:
(A) Section 176, I.P.C.
(B) Section 179, I.P.C.
(C) Section 187, I.P.C.
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) nor (C)
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Section 179 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) states that a criminal offence can be tried or inquired into by a court in the jurisdiction where the act was committed or the consequences occurred.
9. The investigating officer during the investigation records the statements of a witness under—
Options:
(A) Section 160 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 162 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 161 of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 164 of Cr.P.C.
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The statements recorded under Section 161 play a key role in criminal trials. For example, if a witness’s evidence in court contradicts the statement recorded under Section 161, the court can scrutinize the evidence more carefully.
10. A statement of a witness recorded under section 161 of Cr.P.C. in writing during investigation and is signed by the person making the statement is hit by:
Options:
(A) Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 161(3) of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 162(1) of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 162(2) of Cr.P.C.
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Section 162(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 states that any statement made by a person to a police officer during an investigation cannot be signed by the person making it if it is reduced to writing. This section also prohibits the use of such statements for any purpose during a trial or inquiry, except as provided in the section.
11. Which of the following is relevant fact under Evidence Act, 1872?
Options:
(A) facts regarding motive
(B) facts regarding statement without related conduct
(C) facts regarding statements clubbed with conduct
(D) facts which make other relevant fact is highly probable
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Facts regarding motive are relevant under the Indian Evidence Act of 1872, specifically Section 8. Motive is the underlying cause or reason that derives a person to act in a certain way. Any fact that shows or constitutes a motive is relevant if it is related to a fact in issue or a relevant fact.
12. Test of competency of witness is:
Options:
(A) Her being intelligent
(B) Must be major
(C) Understanding the nature of question
(D) Capable of understanding the nature of question and giving rational answer
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The test of witness competency is whether a witness has the mental capacity to understand questions and provide a full account of any events they know about. The burden of proof for a witness’s competency is on the party that wants to call them.
13. Which one is exception as rule of hearsay evidence?
Options:
(A) dying declaration
(B) facts forming part of same transaction
(C) facts forming plea of alibi
(D) facts regarding character of accuse
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
There are several exceptions to the hearsay rule, including: Excited utterances, Present sense impressions, Statements about mental or emotional state, Statements for medical diagnosis, Recorded recollections, Business records, Public records, Family records, Statements against interest, Dying declarations.
14. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication:
Options:
(A) was made during marriage with promise of confidentiality
(B) was made during marriage, even without promise of confidentiality
(C) was made before marriage with promise of confidentiality
(D) is made after marriage
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Communication between a husband and wife is considered privileged communication under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This means that neither spouse can be forced to disclose any communication made between them during their marriage, and they cannot disclose any such communication without the other spouse’s consent. This privilege is also known as marital privilege or spousal privilege.
15. Leading questions can be asked even without permission of court during—
Options:
(A) Examination-in-Chief
(B) Cross-Examination
(C) Re-Examination
(D) All of the above
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Leading questions may be put in cross-examination under Section 143 of the Indian Evidence Act. A question is leading one when it points to witnessing the real or obligated fact that the examiner expects and desires to be confirmed by the answer.
16. What do you mean by word ‘evidence’?
Options:
(A) Every fact connected with case
(B) Facts introduced in court of law
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Evidence is something, including testimony, documents and tangible objects that tends to prove or disprove the existence of an alleged act.
17. What is fact in issue?
Options:
(A) Facts involved indirectly
(B) Necessary facts to arrive or determine rights, liability or community
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
A fact in issue is a fact that is in dispute and must be determined by the court to resolve a case. Facts in issue are also known as ‘principal facts’ or factum probandum. They are the foundation of a case and determine what arguments the parties will make.
18. Relevant fact is?
Options:
(A) Facts logically relevant to any fact in issue
(B) Facts legally relevant to any fact in issue
(C) Both
(D) None
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A relevant fact is a fact that is connected with another fact in a way that helps to prove or disprove the facts in question. Relevant facts are important in the law of evidence, which deals with the types of evidence that can be used in a court of law.
19. Which of the following is correct with regard to a standard form of contract?
Options:
(A) It is valid contract
(B) The party has no choice but to accept and sign the contract
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) The consent is not a free consent
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
A standard form contract is a pre-drafted agreement with terms and conditions that one party sets and the other party accepts without negotiation. These contracts are commonly used because they are cost-effective and save time, but they can also be disadvantageous for consumers and small businesses.
20. As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is
Options:
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Unlawful
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that an agreement without consideration is void, unless it is: In writing and registered, A promise to compensate for something done, or A promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.
21. A contingent agreement based on an impossible event under section 36 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is
Options:
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Void till impossible event is known
(D) Void when event becomes impossible
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Contract Act of 1872, a contingent agreement based on an impossible event is void. This is true even if the parties to the agreement were unaware of the impossibility of the event at the time it was made.
22. The consensus ad-idem means
Options:
(A) General consensus
(B) Reaching an agreement
(C) Meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense
(D) All the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Consensus ad idem is a Latin term that means ‘agreement to the same thing’ or ‘meeting of the minds’. In contract law, it refers to the principle that both parties must have a clear and mutual understanding of the terms and subject-matter of an agreement for it to be legally binding.
23. In famous Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke-Ball Co. (1893) 1 QBD 256, the Hon’ble Court held that the Contract was accepted on being—
Options:
(A) Communicated
(B) Acted upon
(C) Refused
(D) Advertised
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Company [1893] 1 QB 256 is an English contract law decision by the Court of Appeal, which held an advertisement containing certain terms to get a reward constituted a binding unilateral offer that could be accepted by anyone who performed its terms.
24. Inadequacy of consideration does not make the contract—
Options:
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Unenforceable
(D) Neither void nor voidable
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Inadequacy of consideration is not a valid defence to a contract, but it can be considered by the court when determining if the promisor’s consent was freely given. According to the Indian Contract Act of 1872, a contract is not valid without consideration.
25. A jus personam means a right against
Options:
(A) A specific person
(B) The public at large
(C) A specific thing
(D) None of these
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A jus in personam is a legal right to take action against a specific person or group of people to enforce a legal obligation. The term is Latin for ‘right against a person’.
26. Exposure of goods by a shopkeeper is-
Options:
(A) Offer for Sale
(B) Invitation to Offer
(C) Offer
(D) Acceptance
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the exposure of goods by a shopkeeper is not an offer to sell. Instead, it is an invitation to offer, which means the shopkeeper is inviting others to make an offer to them. The customer makes the offer to buy when they pick up the goods, and the sale is not finalized until the shopkeeper accepts the customer’s offer price.
27. An agreement to remain unmarried is—
Options:
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Unenforceable
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
An agreement to remain unmarried is void, unless it is between minors. This is stated in Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872, which states that any agreement that prevents someone from marrying, other than a minor, is void and cannot be enforced in court.
28. An agreement enforceable at law is—
Options:
(A) Enforceable acceptance
(B) Accepted offer
(C) Approved promise
(D) Contract
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
An agreement enforceable by law is a contract. The Indian Contract Act of 1872 defines a contract as an agreement that is enforceable by law. This act is based on English Common Law and is applicable to all states in India.
29. An agreement shall be void for—
Options:
(A) Mistake of fact by one party
(B) Mistake of fact by both the parties
(C) Mistake of foreign law
(D) All the above
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
An agreement may be void for a number of reasons, including: Unlawful consideration or object, Lack of capacity, Lack of assent, Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
30. Void agreement signifies
Options:
(A) Agreement illegal in nature
(B) Agreement not enforceable by law
(C) Agreement violating legal procedure
(D) Agreement against public policy
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
A void agreement is a contract or agreement that cannot be enforced by law and is considered null and void. This means that neither party is obligated to fulfill their obligations under the agreement and neither party can seek legal remedy for any breaches.
31. A proposal when accepted becomes—
Options:
(A) Promise under section 2(b), Contract Act
(B) Agreement under section 2(e), Contract Act
(C) Contract under section 2(h), Contract Act
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A proposal becomes a promise when it is accepted. The person who makes the proposal is called the promisor, and the person who accepts the proposal is called the promisee.
32. Offer under section 2(a), Contract Act is-
Options:
(A) Communication from one person to another
(B) Suggestion by one person to another
(C) Willingness to do or abstain from doing an action in order to obtain the assent of other thereto
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Contract Act of 1872, an offer is a proposal made by one person to another to enter into a contract. Section 2(a) of the Act defines an offer as when someone expresses their willingness to do or not do something in order to get the other person’s agreement.
33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Options:
(A) Specific Relief Act, 1963, extends to the whole of India except State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Specific performance is granted where there exists no standard for ascertaining damage
(C) Where the aggrieved party can be adequately compensated in money, he will get only a decree for damages and not the recourse to
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Specific Relief Act, 1963 applies to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir. The Act came into force on March 1, 1964. However, the words ‘except the State of Jammu and Kashmir’ were omitted by Act 34 of 2019, with effect from October 31, 2019.
34. Which of the following is the correct statement:
Options:
(A) Under section 7, C.P.C., the suit may be for recovery of special movable property or, in the alternative for compensation
(B) Under section 7, C.P.C. pecuniary compensation is not an adequate relief to the plaintiff for the loss of the article and the relief prayed is for injunction restraining the defendant from disposing of the article or otherwise injuring or concealing it, or for return of the same
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) All are incorrect
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Pecuniary compensation is not adequate relief for a plaintiff who has lost an article, they may seek an injunction to restrain the defendant from disposing of, injuring, or concealing it, or to return it.
35. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit under Transfer of Property Act
Options:
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 1959 (B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) None of all
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
As per section 13 of the Act, for a transfer for benefit of unborn first a life estate has to be created in favour of living person or persons and then an absolute interest in favour of the unborn. The person in whose favour a life estate has been created shall possess and enjoy it till the time he/she is alive.
36. Which section of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with onerous gift?
Options:
(A) Section 127
(B) Section 126
(C) Section 125
(D) Section 124
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
An onerous gift is a gift that comes with obligations or burdens attached to the property. It is different from a regular gift, which is given without conditions. The legal aspects of onerous gifts are covered by Section 127 of the Transfer of Property Act.
37. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on—
Options:
(A) 9th December, 1881
(B) 19th December, 1881
(C) 1st March, 1882
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on March 1, 1882. The Act was enacted on December 9, 1881.
38. The term ‘Negotiable Instrument’ is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881,
Options:
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 13A
(D) Section 13B
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act states that, ‘A negotiable instrument means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer’.
39. When was the Advocates Act introduced?
Options:
(A) 1962
(B) 1959
(C) 1961
(D) 1966
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Advocates Act, 1961 was introduced on May 19, 1961. The Act’s objectives were to: Consolidate and amend laws related to the legal profession and practitioners, and Establish bar councils and State Bar Councils in each state.
40. The Bar Council of India consists of following as an ex-officio member
Options:
(A) Attorney-General of India
(B) Solicitor-General of India
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Bar Council of India has two ex-officio members: Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India. In addition to these ex-officio members, the Bar Council of India also includes members elected from each State Bar Council.
41. Indian Bar Committee was constituted first time under the chairmanship of Sir Adward Chamier in the year
Options:
(A) 1927
(B) 1961
(C) 1949
(D) 1923
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Indian Bar Committee, also known as the Chamier Committee, was appointed in 1923 under the chairmanship of Sir Edward Chamier. The committee was tasked with examining the possibility of establishing an Indian Bar and the extent to which the distinction between Barristers and Vakils could be removed.
42. Power of Disciplinary Committee under the Advocates Act is provided under:
Options:
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 53
(C) Section 40
(D) Section 36
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The powers of the disciplinary committee under the Advocates Act, 1961 are provided under Section 42 of the Act. These powers include: Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining them on oath, Requiring the discovery and production of any documents, Receiving evidence on affidavits, Requisitioning any public record or copies thereof from any court or office, Issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents, Any other matter that may be prescribed.
43. The Indian Council of Arbitration was established in;
Options:
(A) 1956
(B) 1976
(C) 1965
(D) 1996
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) was established in 1965. It was set up by the Government of India and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI).
44. Lex Arbitri means
Options:
(A) Arbitral Tribunal sitting in India can abide by the Singapore Law.
(B) Just Law
(C) Arbitrary Law
(D) None of these
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Lex arbitri is a Latin term that means ‘law of arbitration’ or ‘law of the place of arbitration’. It refers to the procedural law that governs the conduct of arbitration proceedings, including the arbitration agreement and enforcement of the award.
45. In India the Arbitration & Conciliation Act was enacted in
Options:
(A) 1992
(B) 1993
(C) 1994
(D) 1996
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was enacted in India on August 16, 1996, and came into force on August 22, 1996. The Act was based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration, 1985 and the UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules, 1980.
46. Section 10(1) of the Arbitration & Conciliation Act talks about
Options:
(A) Power of Arbitration
(B) Numbers of Arbitrators
(C) Capacity of Arbitrators
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Section 10(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 states that the parties involved in an arbitration can decide how many arbitrators there will be, as long as the number is not even. If the parties do not decide on the number of arbitrators, then a single arbitrator will be appointed.
47. Foreign court under section 2(5) of CPC means
Options:
(A) A court situated outside India
(B) A court situated outside India under the authority of Government of India
(C) A court situated in India applying foreign law
(D) All of these
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
As per Section 2(5) of CPC, a foreign Court means a Court situated outside India and not established or continued by the authority of the Central Government.
48. Judgment under section 2(9) of CPC means:
Options:
(A) A decree
(B) Dismissal of an appeal
(C) Statement of ground of an order or decree
(D) All of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Under Section 2(9) of the Code, Judgment is defined as the statement given by the Judge on the grounds of a decree or an order. It refers to what the judge observes regarding all the issues in matter and the decision on each of the issues.
49. Principle of Res-sub judice is provided in
Options:
(A) Section 10 of CPC
(B) Section 11 of CPC
(C) Section 13 of CPC
(D) Section 14 of CPC
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC) deals with the concept of Res sub judice. Res Sub judice is a Latin maxim which means under judgement. It implies that where the same subject-matter is pending in a Court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain it.
50. Doctrine of Res-judicata as contained in section 11 of CPC is based on the maxim:
Options:
(A) Nemo debet bis vexari pro uno et eadem causa
(B) Interest republicae at sit finis litium
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The doctrine of res judicata, as contained in Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), is based on three Latin maxims: Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa (no person should be punished twice for the same cause), Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium (it is in the interest of the State to end litigation), and Res judicata pro veritate occipitur (a judicial decision must be accepted as correct).
51. Principle of Res-judicata applies:
Options:
(A) Between co-defendants
(B) Between co-plaintiffs
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The principle of res judicata, also known as claim preclusion, applies when a court has already made a final judgment on a matter between the same parties, and that judgment is no longer subject to appeal. The principle prevents the same parties from relitigating the same issue in the same or a different court.
52. Validity of a foreign judgment can be challenged under Section 13 of CPC;
Options:
(A) In a civil court only
(B) In a criminal court only
(C) In both civil and criminal court
(D) Neither in civil nor in criminal court
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A foreign judgment can be challenged under Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) in India. This section lists the conditions under which a foreign judgment will not be recognized or enforced in India.
53. Under section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in:
Options:
(A) The district court
(B) The court of the lowest grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Every suit shall be instituted in the Court of the lowest grade competent to try it.
54. “X” residing in Delhi, publishes statements defamatory to “Y” in Calcutta, “Y” can sue “X” at:
Options:
(A) Delhi
(B) Calcutta
(C) Anywhere in India
(D) Either in Delhi or in Calcutta
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 states that suits related to specific types of claims concerning immovable property should be instituted in the Court within the local jurisdiction where the property is situated.
55. A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place:
Options:
(A) Where the contract was made
(B) Where the contract was to be performed or breach occurred
(C) Anywhere in India
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at any of the following places: The place where the contract was made, The place where the contract was to be performed, The place where the breach occurred, The defendant’s place of residence or business.
56. In every plaint, under section 26 of CPC facts should be proved by:
Options:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Affidavit
(C) Document
(D) Oral evidence as well as document
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
According to section 26 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), facts in every plaint must be proved by affidavit. The affidavit must be in the form and manner prescribed under Order VI, Rule 15A.
57. The existence of statutes of limitation are due to:
Options:
(A) Long dormant claims have more of cruelty than justice in them
(B) The defendant may have lost the evidence to dispute the stale claim
(C) Persons with good causes of action should pursue them with reasonable diligence
(D) All of the above
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Statutes of limitations exist to protect defendants from unfair legal action by limiting the time period in which legal action can be taken against them. This is because over time, evidence may be lost, witnesses’ memories may fade, and defendants may no longer be able to defend themselves.
58. Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable to-
Options:
(A) Civil suits
(B) Criminal cases
(C) Both above are correct
(D) All the above
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The Limitation Act of 1963 applies to civil cases and court proceedings in the judicial branch of the State. It does not apply to criminal proceedings unless there are specific provisions to that effect.
59. Upon failure to hold Statutory Meeting, the penalty for the defaulting Company shall be—
Options:
(A) Rs. 500 per day of default
(B) Wound up
(C) Rs. 1000 per day of the default
(D) None of these
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Under the Companies Act, 2013, a company that fails to hold a statutory meeting, such as an Annual General Meeting (AGM), can face fines. The company and any defaulting officers can be fined up to Rs 1 lakh, and daily fine up to Rs 5,000 per day.
60. Free transferability of shares is mandatory in a—
Options:
(A) Listed Company
(B) Company Ltd. by shares
(C) Public Ltd. Company
(D) Foreign Company
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Free transferability of shares is mandatory in a public limited company. According to the Companies Act, 2013, the shares of a public company must be easily transferable without any intervention from the board of directors or the depository. This applies to both listed and unlisted public limited companies.
61. The Memorandum of Association of a listed company shall be as per—
Options:
(A) Table A
(B) Table B
(C) Table C
(D) Table D
Ans. – (No Answer)
Explanation:
The Memorandum of Association (MOA) of a listed company must be in the format specified in Tables A-E of Schedule 1 of the Companies Act, 2013. The table to be used depends on the type of business the company is engaged in.
62. Which of the following clause from Memorandum of Association cannot be amended?
Options:
(A) Objects Clause
(B) Liability Clause
(C) Association Clause
(D) Subscription Clause
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Subscription Clause in a Memorandum of Association (MOA) cannot be altered. This is because the Subscribers’ Sheet cannot be changed, even if the subscribers are no longer members.
63. In the IPC, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
Options:
(A) Eight years
(B) Ten years
(C) Seven years
(D) Twelve years
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), nothing is an offence if it is committed by a child under the age of seven years.
64. Right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death if the offence, which occasions the exercise of right:
Options:
(A) Reasonably causes apprehension that death will be caused
(B) Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury will be caused
(C) Is its escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft
(D) Is if arresting a person who is running away after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death if the offence that occasions the exercise of the right is an assault that may reasonably cause the apprehension of grievous hurt, rape, unnatural lust, kidnapping, or abduction.
65. Under section 498A, IPC, the ‘Cruelty’ means and includes:
Options:
(A) Only demand of dowry
(B) Only physical torture
(C) Both mental & physical torture
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Under Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), cruelty is defined as any intentional conduct that is likely to cause grave injury or danger to a woman’s life, limb, or health (mental or physical). It can also include conduct that may drive a woman to commit suicide.
66. What is the offence where preparation itself of an offence is punishable.
Options:
(A) Theft
(B) Dacoity
(C) Murder
(D) Rape
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Section 399, preparation to commit dacoity is a punishable offence. The punishment for making preparations to commit dacoity is rigorous imprisonment for up to ten years, along with a fine.
67. In Rex v. Govinda the points of distinction between the two provisions of the IPC were explained:
Options:
(A) Section 34 and Section 149
(B) Section 302 and Section 304
(C) Section 299 and Section 300
(D) Section 403 and Section 405
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The main difference between the two sections is the degree of intent required. Culpable homicide is a lesser offence than murder, as it doesn’t require the same specific intent to cause death. Murder is a more serious offence than culpable homicide, as it requires a specific intent to cause death.
68. A has sexual intercourse with his own wife aged about 14 years with her consent
Options:
(A) No offence
(B) Offence of Rape
(C) Intercourse with own wife is not Rape
(D) As there was consent hence A cannot be held guilty for the offence of rape
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his wife, the wife not being under eighteen years of age, is not rape.
69. Who categorized the subject of ‘jurisprudence’ and censorial jurisprudence?
Options:
(A) Bentham
(B) Kelsen
(C) Paton
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Jeremy Bentham categorized the subject of jurisprudence into two branches: expository and censorial jurisprudence. Bentham explained that these branches were created by different analytical methods and principles to clarify or suggest legislation.
70. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer’s Extraversion?
Options:
(A) Savigny
(B) Salmond
(C) Julius Stone
(D) Buckland
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Julius Stone is credited with describing jurisprudence as ‘a lawyer’s extraversion’. Stone’s statement refers to the idea that jurisprudence is the study of law, but it must be examined in the context of other social sciences, as law is interwoven with other social sciences for the common good.
71. ‘Fiction Theory’ is related to which of the following concepts?
Options:
(A) Ownership
(B) Liability
(C) Justice
(D) Legal personality
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
Fiction theory is a legal theory that states that a corporation’s personality is different from that of its members. The theory states that a corporation’s personality is an invented persona that is granted rights and obligations by the law.
72. A Sunni Muslim marries with Kitabya girl, the marriage is:
Options:
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Irregular
(D) None of these
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A marriage between a Sunni Muslim man and a Kitabia woman is valid under Sunni law.
73. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 is based on which School of Muslims—
Options:
(A) Hanafi School
(B) Shafi School
(C) Maliki School
(D) Zaidi School
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
In Muslim law, the wife can claim divorce under extrajudicial or judicial modes. The extrajudicial modes are Talaaq-i-tafweez and Lian. The judicial mode is by Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939. The Act defines the grounds for divorce and the procedure that applies.
74. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if:
Options:
(A) She is not married
(B) She is married
(C) She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
(D) She cannot adopt at all
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
A female Hindu can adopt a child under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 if she is: Not a minor, Of sound mind, Unmarried, or her marriage is dissolved, or her husband is dead, Her husband has renounced the world or ceased to be a Hindu, Her husband has been declared of unsound mind by a court of competent jurisdiction.
75. A child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu law is:
Options:
(A) Legitimate
(B) Illegitimate
(C) Illegal
(D) None of these
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Under Hindu law, a child born from a void or voidable marriage is considered legitimate and can claim rights to their parents’ property.
76. The term “Lock-out” under the Industrial Disputes Act is defined in:
Options:
(A) Section 2(I)
(B) Section 2(0)
(C) Section 3(1)
(D) Section 2(M)
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The term ‘lockout’ is defined in Section 2(l) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. It is defined as: The temporary closure of a place of employment, The suspension of work, The refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed by him.
77. The term “Lay-off” has been defined under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:
Options:
(A) Section 2(kkk)
(B) Section 2(0)
(C) Section 2(I)
(D) Section 3(I)
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
It has been defined under Section 2(kkk) of the Act. If a workman, whose name is on the muster rolls of the industrial establishment presents himself for work and is not given employment within two (2) hours of presenting himself, he shall be deemed to have been laid-off for that day.
78. The Trade Unions Act was enacted in:
Options:
(A) 1926
(B) 1946
(C) 1947
(D) 1988
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The Trade Unions Act was enacted in India on March 25, 1926 and came into force on June 1, 1927. The Act was originally known as the Indian Trade Unions Bill, 1925, but the word ‘Indian’ was removed in 1964.
79. The term “Minimum Wage” has been described in:
Options:
(A) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
(B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(C) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 is a Central legislation aimed at statutory fixation of minimum rates of wages in the employments where sweated labour is prevalent with possibility for exploitation of unorganized labour.
80. The Minimum Wages Act was enacted in:
Options:
(A) 1921
(B) 1948
(C) 1947
(D) 2007
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The Minimum Wages Act was passed in India on March 15, 1948. This Act was passed to protect the interests of workers by ensuring that employers pay minimum wages for work performed.
81. The Trade Unions Act provide for:
Options:
(A) registration of trade union
(B) registration of trade union for workers
(C) recognition of registration of trade union as Juristic Persons
(D) all of above
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The Trade Unions Act of 1926 in India provides for the following: Registration of trade unions, Protection and privileges — Registered trade unions are granted certain protections and privileges, Definition of trade unions — The Act defines a trade union as a group of workers or employers that regulates their relationship, Registration requirements — The Act outlines the requirements for registering a trade union, including a minimum of seven members employed at the time of application.
82. Supremacy of law, Equality before law, and predominance of legal Spirit are the basic principles of doctrine of
Options:
(A) Colorable Legislation
(B) Doctrine of “Separation of Powers”
(C) Doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’
(D) Doctrine of Excessive delegation
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The supremacy of law, equality before the law, and predominance of legal spirit are the three basic principles of the rule of law, as propounded by Professor A.V. Dicey in his 1885 book Law and the Constitution.
83. Rule of Law is antithesis of arbitrariness in all civilized societies. It has come to be regarded as mark of a free society. It seeks to maintain the balance between the opposite notions of individual liberty and public order, this was opined by whom in famous “Habeas Corpus” Case?
Options:
(A) Justice H.R. Khanna
(B) Chief Justice Ray
(C) Justice Chandrachud
(D) Justice Bhagwati
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
The idea that the rule of law is the antithesis of arbitrariness in civilized societies and a mark of a free society was expressed by Justice Khanna in a dissenting judgment.
84. Maxim ‘delegatus non potest del’ means?
Options:
(A) A delegate can further delegate
(B) A delegate cannot further delegate
(C) A delegate must protest delegation objectively
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The Latin phrase delegatus non potest delegare translates to ‘a delegate cannot further delegate’. It is a general rule that states that a person or entity that is given a power or authority to act on behalf of another cannot delegate that power unless he or it are expressly authorized to do so.
85. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 is predominantly based on UN General Assembly resolution with due negotiations in the:
Options:
(A) UNCITRAL
(B) UNCTAD
(C) UN ECOSOU
(D) None of the above
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 is based on the United Nations General Assembly’s (UNGA) resolution 39/248, which was adopted on April 16, 1985. The UNGA also revised the guidelines in 1999 and 2015.
86. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in the year:
Options:
(A) 1985
(B) 1986
(C) 2005
(D) 2008
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was enacted in India in 1986. The Consumer Protection Bill, 1986 was passed by both houses of Parliament, and the President gave his assent to the Bill on December 24, 1986. The Act came into force on December 24, 1986.
87. Appeal against the award of Claims Tribunals under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 can be made under:
Options:
(A) Section 171
(B) Section 172
(C) Section 173
(D) Section 174
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, an appeal against a Claims Tribunal award can be made to the High Court within 90 days of the award date. This is as per Section 173 of the Act.
88. The amendment in Motor Vehicles Act in 1994, the compensation in case of death of the person is:
Options:
(A) Rs. 25,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 70,000
(D) Rs. 90,000
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
The amendment to the Motor Vehicles Act in 1994 increased the compensation for death in a motor vehicle accident to Rs. 50,000. This was a fixed amount under the ‘No Fault Liability’ clause of Section 140 of the Act, and did not require proof of the owner’s negligence or wrongful act.
89. Under the vicarious liability, the liability is:
Options:
(A) Joint
(B) Several
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either of the above depending upon facts and circumstances of the case
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Vicarious liability, or imputed liability, is indirect liability for the actions of another person, such as a subordinate or child. An employer can be held liable for the unlawful action of an employee. This action might be harassment or discrimination in the workplace.
90. In Torts, in case of Defamation:
Options:
(A) Intention to defame is not necessary
(B) Intention to defame is necessary
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
Defamation is a tort that involves making a statement that harms a person’s reputation. It is a civil wrong, and the law treats a person’s reputation as a valuable property.
91. The Father of which of the leader has been the Deputy Prime Minister of India?
Options:
(A) Kumari Mayawati
(B) Mrs. Meira Kumar
(C) Mrs. Pratibha Singh Patil
(D) Mrs. Vasundhara Raje
Ans. – (B)
Explanation:
Meira Kumar was the daughter of Babu Jagjivan Ram, a former Deputy Prime Minister of India. She studied at Cambridge University. After Cambridge, she joined the Indian Foreign Service in 1973. She was elected to parliament as a member of the Indian National Congress.
92. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
Options:
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) B.N. Rao
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Dr. B. N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India.
93. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India is based on:
Options:
(A) Procedure established by law
(B) Due process of law
(C) Rule of law
(D) International treaties and convention
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The concept of judicial review in India is based on the doctrine that originated in the United States. The Constitution of India implicitly provides for judicial review through Articles 13, 32, 136, 142, and 226. The Supreme Court has declared judicial review to be a basic feature of the Constitution.
94. Protection of environment is a:
Options:
(A) Constitutional Duty
(B) Directive Principle
(C) Fundamental Duty
(D) Both (B) & (C)
Ans. – (D)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India did not include provisions related to the protection and preservation of the environment. However, under Article 21 (Right to Life) of the Constitution of India, the right to a clean and healthy environment is incorporated as a fundamental right.
95. The item ‘Education’ belongs to the:
Options:
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Subject
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Education is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution.
96. While interpreting the phrase “equality before the law contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India”, the Supreme Court constantly maintained that equality means:
Options:
(A) Absolute equality among human beings
(B) Equal treatment to all persons
(C) Among equals, the law should be equal and should be equally administered
(D) Both (B) & (C)
Ans. – (—)
Explanation:
While interpreting Article 14 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has ruled that equality before the law means that all people in similar circumstances should be treated equally, without discrimination. This includes the privileges and liabilities that laws confer and impose.
97. The number of fundamental rights available in Constitution of India are:
Options:
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Ten
Ans. – (A)
Explanation:
There are six fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution that include right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and right to constitutional remedies.
98. Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
Options:
(A) Right to equality
(B) Rights to Freedom of Religion
(C) Rights to Constitutional Remedies
(D) All the above
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Dr B.R. Ambedkar described the Right to Constitutional Remedies, as stated in Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution.
99. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Options:
(A) 6 years
(B) upto 65 years of age
(C) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
(D) upto 62 years of age
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) holds office for a term of six years, or until they reach the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The CAG can resign at any time by submitting a letter of resignation to the President.
100. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?
Options:
(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
Ans. – (C)
Explanation:
Habeas corpus is a legal remedy that allows a person to challenge their unlawful detention or imprisonment. The term literally means ‘you shall have the body’.
