Q.1. Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided under Article 19(1)(a) on this ground:
(A) Defamation
(B) Public Order
(C) Sedition
(D) Security of the state
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Restrictions may not be imposed on freedoms provided under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution on the ground that it would affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law.
Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution grants citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression. This right is not absolute, and it is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of the general public. These restrictions can be imposed to maintain social order, national integrity, public order, decency, morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation, or incitement to an offense.
Q.2. Right guaranteed to citizen only is:
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 20
(C) Article 19(1)(a)
(D) Article 25
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The following rights are guaranteed to citizens of India and are not available to non-citizens: Freedom of speech and expression; Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms; Freedom to form associations or unions; Freedom to move freely throughout India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India; Freedom to practice any profession or carry on any occupation, trade, or business.
Q.3. President can be removed on the ground of?
(A) Proved Misbehaviour
(B) Incapacity
(C) Violation of Constitution
(D) All of the Above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The President of India can be removed from office by impeachment for violating the Constitution of India. The procedure for impeachment is outlined in Articles 58 to 71 of the Constitution.
Q.4. The designation ‘Senior Advocates’ is provided under
(A) Section 16, Advocates Act, 1961
(B) Section 26, Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 6, Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 15, Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the designation of advocates as Senior Advocates.
Q.5. Right to pre-audience is provided by:
(A) Section 33 of Advocates Act, 1961
(B) Section 23 of Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 16 of Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 36 of Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The right of pre-audience is provided by Section 23 of the Advocates Act, 1961. This right gives an advocate the privilege of being heard before others in a court of law. Advocates also have the right to not be interrupted while making their statement.
Q.6. The ‘Contempt of Court’ belongs to:
(A) Entry 77 of Union list and Entry 14 of State list in the VIIth Schedule of Constitution of India
(B) Entry 70 of Union List and Entry 40 of State List
(C) Entry 67 of Union List and Entry 13 of State List
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Contempt of court is a power of the courts to protect their authority and respect. The power to punish for contempt of court in India is vested in the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Q.7. Who was the Chief Justice of India when the concept of PIL was introduced to Indian Judicial system?
(A) M. Hidayatullah
(B) A.M. Ahmadi
(C) A.S. Anand
(D) P.N. Bhagwati
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Justice P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when the concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system in 1986.
Q.8. The Supreme Court of India issued a number of direction for the prevention of Women in various forms of prostitution and to rehabilitate their children through various welfare measures and ‘so as to provide them with dignity of person, means of livelihood and socio-economic development in the case of –
(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 (SC) 3001
(B) Gaurav Jain v. Union of India, AIR 1997 (SC) 3021
(C) Delhi Domestic Working Women’s Forum v. Union of India (1998) 1 SC 14
(D) Sheela Barse v. Union of India (1986) 35 SC 596
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
This decision is significant because it expressly recognised the rights of children of sex-workers (to equality of opportunity, dignity, care, protection and rehabilitation) and established that the State has a duty to protect those rights. The court directly applied the provisions of international law, such as the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Q.9. Hadith is one of the sources of Muslim law. It comprises:
(A) Very words of god
(B) Words and actions of the prophet
(C) Unanimous decision of jurists
(D) Analogical decisions
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Hadith, a collection of books that are a source of Islamic law and dogma, is made up of two parts: The text (matn) attributed to the Prophet Muhammad, and The chain of transmission (isnad) – the chain of people who are said to have heard and repeated the hadith.
Q.10. Intellectual Property Appellate Board is established under which Act:
(A) The Copyright Act, 1957
(B) The Patent Act, 1970
(C) The Trademark Act, 1999
(D) The Designs Act, 2000
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 83 of the Trademark Act, 1999 deals with establishment of Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
Q.11. What is the maximum duration within which fast track arbitration must be completed—
(A) 6 Months
(B) 12 Months
(C) 18 Months
(D) 24 Months
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 29B of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with the Fast track procedure. Clause (4) states that the award under this section shall be made within a period of six months from the date the arbitral tribunal enters upon the reference.
Q.12. Which one of the following Section deals with form of summons?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 61
(C) Section 62
(D) Section 64
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 61 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 covers the following topics: Summons (the form of summons that a court issues, including the requirements for the summons); Maximum detention period (the police can detain someone for up to 24 hours if they have demanded a bribe or denied making a statement under Section 61).
Q.13. Under Cr.P.C. provisions relating to prosecution of Judge is provided under-
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) Section 199
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The provisions relating to prosecution of Judge is provided under Section 197 of the Cr.P.C.
Q.14. A resides at Hyderabad, B at Calcutta and C at Delhi. A, B and C being together at Allahabad, B and C make a joint promissory note payable on demand, and deliver to A. A may sue B and C:
(A) At Allahabad where the cause of action arises
(B) At Calcutta, where B resides
(C) At Delhi, where C resides
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 states that a suit must be filed in a court within the local limits of its jurisdiction: When the defendant resides, carries on business, or works for gain; When the cause of action arises.
Q.15. Section 25 empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit, appeal or other proceeding:
(A) From one High Court to another High Court
(B) From one civil court in court in one State of another civil court in any other State
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) Only (a)
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
As per Section 25(1), CPC, On the application of a party, and after notice to the parties, and after hearing such of them as desire to be heard, the Supreme Court may, at any stage, if satisfied that an order under this section is expedient for the ends of justice, direct that any suit, appeal or other proceeding be transferred from a High Court or other Civil Court in one State to a High Court or other Civil Court in another State.
Q.16. In which of the following cases, can C set-off the claim?
(A) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs. 500/-, C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C’s goods and he is liable to pay compensation
(B) A sues C on a bill of exchange for Rs. 500/-, C holds a decree against A for recovery of debt of Rs. 1000/-
(C) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C alone by A.
(D) A and B sues C for Rs. 1000/-, the debt is due to C by alone
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Order VIII Rule 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with set-offs in civil suits. A defendant can only use a set-off if the following conditions are met: The suit is for the recovery of money; The amount due is definite and legally recoverable; The amount does not exceed the court’s pecuniary jurisdiction; Both parties have the same character as they do in the plaintiff’s suit.
Q.17. The Latin word ‘Res Ipsa Loquitur’ means:
(A) Things speak it’s story itself
(B) Where there is consent there is no injury
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Res Ipsa loquitur is a Latin word which means that ‘the thing speaks for itself’. In this doctrine of law, one is presumed to be negligent if he/she/it had exclusive control of whatever caused the injury even though there is no specific evidence of an act of negligence, and without negligence the accident would not have happened.
Q.18. In which of the following cases the Principle of common Employment’ was evolved for the first time?
(A) Rylands v. Fletcher
(B) Priestley v. Fowler
(C) Ashby v. White
(D) Wagon v. Mound
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Priestley v Fowler [1837] 150 ER 1030 is an old English tort law case, which introduced the old rule of common employment. This is the idea that the employer is not liable for injuries caused by one employee to another in the course of their employment.
Q.19. Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council is conferred the powers of Civil Court under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 by–
(A) Section 36 of Advocates Act, 1961
(B) Section 42 of Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 42A of Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 28 of Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 42 of Advocates Act, 1961 provides for the Powers of Disciplinary Committee of Bar Council.
Q.20. Which one of the following is a leading case on ‘Injuria Sine Damnum’?
(A) Rylands v. Fletcher
(B) Ashby v. White
(C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Injuria sine damno is a legal principle that states that a legal right can be violated without causing any damage or loss to the plaintiff. This principle allows a person to seek legal remedies and compensation even if they haven’t suffered any damages.
Q.21. Which one is leading case on Strict Liability?
(A) Alen v. Flood
(B) Rylands v. Fletcher
(C) Borhil v. Young
(D) Donoghue v. Stevenson
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Strict liability is a legal concept that holds a defendant responsible for the consequences of an action, even if they didn’t intend to cause harm or were not at fault. It is used in both criminal and civil law.
Q.22. Section 66A of Information Technology Act, 2000 was invalidated by the Supreme Court of India in:
(A) Anvar P.V.v. P.K. Basheer, (2014)10 SC 473
(B) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, AIR 2015 (SC) 1523
(C) Dr. Prafulla Desai v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2003 (SC) 2053
(D) State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005), 11 SC 600
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court in the case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, relating to restrictions on online speech and considered it as unconstitutional on grounds of violating the freedom of speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
Q.23. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory under:
(A) Indian Forest Act
(B) Air Act
(C) Wildlife Protection Act
(D) Environment Protection Act
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is mandatory in India under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The EIA process is an integral part of the project planning and approval process in India. It helps to identify potential environmental impacts and devise appropriate mitigation measures.
Q.24. When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place disturb the public peace, they are said to commit:
(A) A riot
(B) An affray
(C) An assault
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 159, IPC deals with the term ‘Affray’.
Q.25. Promotion of ‘class hatred’ is given under:
(A) Section 153A of the I.P.C.
(B) Section 153AA of the I.P.C.
(C) Section 153B of the I.P.C.
(D) Section 144A of the I.P.C.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 153A, IPC provides for Promoting enmity between different groups on ground of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony.
Q.26. The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill. J. in:
(A) Reg. v. Gorachand Gopee
(B) Reg. v. Govinda
(C) Govinda v. Reg
(D) Reg. v. Hayward
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The distinction between Section 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill. J. in the case of Reg vs. Govinda.
Q.27. Which of the following is not a Federal feature of any Constitution:
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Double set of Government
(C) Rigid Constitutional
(D) Single Citizenship
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Single citizenship is the idea that a person is a citizen of their country and not of any specific region or state within that country. The Indian Constitution only allows for single citizenship, and the concept was brought to India from the British Constitution.
Q.28. Parliament in exercise of its power to amend under Article 368, may not amend:
(A) Preamble
(B) Fundamental Right
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Basic Structure
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
In Kesavanand Bharati v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that Article 368 does not enable Parliament to alter the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
Q.29. Which Article starts with ‘Subject to public order, morality & health’:
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 15
(C) Article 28
(D) Article 25
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to religious freedom, with some restrictions: Freedom of conscience; Freedom to practice religion; Freedom to propagate religion; Restrictions: These rights are subject to restrictions in the interest of public order, morality, and health.
Q.30. Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and maintenance Act, 1956 provides for the Maintenance of:
(A) Wife
(B) Parents
(C) Widowed daughter-in-law
(D) Children
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 19 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 provides for the maintenance of widowed daughter-in-law.
Q.31. Section 30 of the Hindu Successions Act, 1956 deals with:
(A) Woman estate
(B) Testamentary Successions
(C) Male Successions
(D) Female Successions
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 30 of the Hindu Successions Act, 1956 deals with the Testamentary Succession.
Q.32. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C. deals with examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner:
(A) Section 54A
(B) Section 55A
(C) Section 53A
(D) Section 60A
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 53A, Cr.P.C. deals with examination of person accused of rape by medical practitioner.
Q.33. According to Section 167 of the Cr.P.C. an accused person can be remanded to police custody for not more than:
(A) 7 days at one time
(B) 30 days at one time
(C) 15 days at one time
(D) 60 days at one time
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.), 1973, the Magistrate may authorize the accused’s detention for up to 15 days. The Magistrate may authorize detention beyond 15 days if there are adequate grounds.
Q.34. Which of the following is essential for a valid adoption under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Datta homam
(B) Actual giving and taking of child
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The provisions relating to essentials of valid adoption are dealt with by Section 6 of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
Q.35. Hindu male can adopt a female child, if the difference of age between the two is of more than:
(A) 15 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A Hindu male can adopt a female child if the age difference between them is at least 21 years, as per the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act of 1956.
Q.36. Which of the following relations is not dependent under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?
(A) Grand Mother
(B) Mother
(C) Widow
(D) Daughter
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Grand Mother is not considered as dependent under Section 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
Q.37. A communication made to the spouse during marriage, under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act-
(A) Remains privileged even after dissolution of marriage
(B) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by divorce
(C) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage only by death
(D) Does not remain privileged in both the (B) and (C)
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 protects communications made between spouses during marriage as privileged communication. This means that a person who is or has been married cannot be forced to disclose any communication made to them by their spouse, and they cannot disclose it without their spouse’s consent.
Q.38. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that an accomplice is a competent witness:
(A) Section 114 illustration (B)
(B) Section 118
(C) Section 133
(D) Section 134
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 states that an accomplice is a competent witness against an accused person and that a conviction based on an accomplice’s uncorroborated testimony is not illegal.
Q.39. Which is the subject-matter of neighbouring rights protection-
(A) Performance
(B) Dramatic work
(C) Geographical indication
(D) New varieties and plant
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Performance is the subject-matter of neighbouring rights protection.
Q.40. Adam Smith has enumerated cannons of taxation which are accepted universally they are:
(A) Equality and Certainty
(B) Equality, Convenience and Economy
(C) Equality and Economy
(D) Equality, Certainty, Convenience and Economy
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Adam Smith, an economist, had propounded certain canons of taxation. These canons enable an efficient taxation system. The canons include the canon of equity, canon of certainty, canon of economy, canon of convenience, canon of productivity, and canon of elasticity.
Q.41. For the first time in Indian Income Tax law was introduced by Sir James Wilson in the year:
(A) 1886
(B) 1868
(C) 1860
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In India, Income-tax law was introduced for the first time in the year 1860 by Sir James Wilson.
Q.42. Which one of the following sections of Cr.P.C. deals with compoundable of offence?
(A) Section 313
(B) Section 320
(C) Section 321
(D) Section 324
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 320, Cr.P.C. deals with the provisions relating to Compounding of offences.
Q.43. What is the time limit under section 468 of Cr.P.C. for taking cognizance:
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) No limit
Answer: **
Explanation:
The time limit for taking cognizance of an offense under Section 468 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) depends on the type of punishment for the offense: Fine only: The time limit is six months; Imprisonment up to one year: The time limit is one year; Imprisonment more than one year but up to three years: The time limit is three years.
Q.44. ‘Industrial establishment’ means- (i) A factory (ii) A mine (iii) A plantation (iv) An industry
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (i), (ii), (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) Only (i)
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An industrial establishment is a workshop or other facility where items are produced, altered, repaired, or otherwise treated for sale, transport, or disposal. This includes: Factories; Mines; Plantations; Water transport vessels; Contractor’s establishments for construction, repair, or demolition.
Q.45. Strike should be called only if at least………. percent of workers are in support of strike. (Fill in the blank).
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: **
Explanation:
In India, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 states that a trade union with 75% of workers in an establishment will be the sole negotiating union. If no union has 75% of the workers, then a negotiating council of unions will be formed.
Q.46. Industrial relations cover the following area(s): (i) Collective Bargaining. (ii) Labour Legislation (iii) Industrial Relations Training. (iv) Trade Unions
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Industrial relations cover a variety of areas, including: Working conditions; Employee rights and benefits; Trade unions; Human resource management; Regulatory compliance.
Q.47. The term ‘Suit of a Civil Nature’ refers to:
(A) Private rights and obligations of a citizen.
(B) Political, social and religious question.
(C) A suit in which principal question relates to caste or religion.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A suit of civil nature is a legal action that involves a dispute between two or more parties and falls within the realm of civil law. Civil law covers a wide range of disputes, including those related to property, contracts, torts, and family law.
Q.48. The rule of res Sub-Judice Implies:
(A) Where the same subject-matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
(B) Where the same subject-matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the different parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case so long as the first suit goes on.
(C) Where the different subject-matter is pending in a court of law for adjudication between the same parties, the other court is barred to entertain the case long as the first suit goes on.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Res sub judice is a Latin phrase that means ‘under judgment’ or ‘under a judge’. It is a legal principle that prevents a plaintiff from filing multiple lawsuits on the same subject-matter at the same time.
Q.49. A suit brought by a person to recover possession from a stranger of math property claiming it as heir of the deceased Mahant. The suit is dismissed on his failure to produce the succession certificate. A second suit was filed by him as manager of the math:
(A) The second suit will be barred by Res Judicata.
(B) The second suit will not be barred by Res Judicata.
(C) The second suit will be barred by Res sub-Judice
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC) deals with the doctrine of res judicata, which prevents courts from re-examining a case that has already been decided.
Q.50. Which among the following is not an ADR method under Section 89 of CPC, 1908-
(A) Mini Trial
(B) Judicial Settlement through lok adalat
(C) Conciliation
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
No, a mini-trial is an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) method. A mini-trial is a structured, informal, and voluntary process where parties present their case to an independent third party, who then provides a conclusion. The purpose of a mini-trial is to help the parties reach a settlement without going to trial, and to preserve their relationship.
Q.51. What is the maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a Conciliation proceeding:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The maximum number of Conciliators allowed in a Conciliation proceeding are three. Section 63 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 mandates that there shall be one conciliator unless the parties agree that there shall be two or three conciliators. Where there is more than one conciliator, they ought, as a general rule, to act jointly.
Q.52. What is the status of a settlement agreement in Conciliation proceeding:
(A) Non-binding
(B) Same as a settlement award
(C) Unlike a settlement award
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Settlement Agreement shall thereafter have the same legal status and effect as an arbitration award on agreed terms on the substance of the dispute rendered by an arbitral tribunal passed under section 30 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Q.53. Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person is a competent witness if he or she-
(A) is a major
(B) is not lunatic
(C) is not extreme old age
(D) is capable of understanding questions put to him and giving rational answers irrespective of age
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that anyone is eligible to give testimony unless the court deems that they are unable to: Understand the questions being asked of them; Provide rational answers to the questions being asked of them; Be lawfully examined; Take the oath or solemn affirmation.
Q.54. Which of the following Judgement is irrelevant under Section 43 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872-
(A) Judgement of an insolvency court
(B) Judgement of criminal court
(C) Judgement of matrimonial court
(D) judgement of probate court
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 43 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 states that judgments, orders, or decrees are irrelevant unless they are a fact in issue or relevant under other provisions of the Act. This applies to judgments that are not mentioned in sections 40, 41, or 42 of the Act.
Q.55. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a witness has been given right to refresh his memory
(A) Section 157
(B) Section 158
(C) Section 159
(D) Section 160
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The right to refresh memory is given to a witness under Section 159 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This section allows a witness to refer to any writing to refresh their memory while being examined.
Q.56. ‘Mandamus’ may be issued by:
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Both (A) and (b)
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A writ of mandamus can be issued by a court to direct a public authority to perform a legal duty: A public official, A public corporation, A tribunal, An inferior court, and The government.
Q.57. The provision for administrative tribunals added by:
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 24th Amendment
(D) 43rd Amendment
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the provision for administrative tribunals in the Constitution of India. The amendment gave Parliament the power to establish administrative tribunals at the Central and State levels to adjudicate on matters related to public servants’ conditions of service and recruitment.
Q.58. The provision relating to free legal aid is given under:
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 304
(C) Section 303
(D) Section 305
Answer: **
Explanation:
Article 39A is a highly significant article, which provides a right to seek legal aid. It also states that it is the duty of the State to secure that right and the need to provide free legal aid at reasonable rates. The Government will be responsible for providing free legal aid in respect of all persons in future.
Q.59. Under which one of the following provisions of Cr.P.C. police officer is under an obligation to produce the person arrested before a Magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest:
(A) Section 56
(B) Section 57
(C) Section 60
(D) Section 70
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 57, Cr.P.C. provides that the Person arrested not to be detained more than twenty-four hours.
Q.60. Who may record confessional statement under Section 164 of the Cr.P.C.?
(A) Police Officer
(B) Judicial officer
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) Judicial Magistrate having Jurisdiction only.
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of India deals with the recording of confessions and statements. The purpose of this section is to ensure that confessions are made voluntarily and accurately.
Q.61. The provision relating to Plea bargaining is not applicable in following offence:
(A) Socio-economic offence
(B) Offence against women
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Plea bargaining is not applicable in the following offences: Offences punishable with death penalty, life imprisonment, or imprisonment term exceeding seven years; Offences that affect the socio-economic conditions of the country; Offences committed against a woman or a child below the age of 14 years; Offences that are covered under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961; Offences that are covered under the Commission of Sati Prevention Act, 1987.
Q.62. When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means such an agreement is designated as:
(A) Abetment by Conspiracy
(B) Abetment by Aid
(C) Criminal Conspiracy
(D) Abetment
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 120A, IPC defines the term ‘Criminal Conspiracy’.
Q.63. The provisions regarding sedition are given:
(A) Under section 124 of the I.P.C.
(B) Under section 124A of the I.P.C
(C) Under section 121A of the I.P.C.
(D) Under section 130 of the I.P.C.
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 deals with sedition, which is defined as attempting to incite disaffection or contempt towards the Government of India. Punishment: The punishment for sedition is life imprisonment, up to three years in prison, or a fine. Means of communication: Sedition can be committed through words, signs, visible representations, or other means.
Q.64. A suit may be dismissed under Order IX: (i) Where the summons is not served upon the defendant in consequence of the plaintiff’s failure to pay costs for service of summons (Rule 2) (ii) Where neither the plaintiff nor the defendant appears (Rule 3) (iii) Where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, fails for 7 days to apply for fresh summons (Rule 5) (iv) Where on the date fixed for hearing in a suit only defendant appears and he does not admit the plaintiff’s claim. (Rule 8):
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Order IX, CPC.
Q.65. The ex-officio chairman of the council of state is?
(A) The President
(B) Speaker, Lok Sabha
(C) Vice President
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to Article 64 of Indian Constitution, the Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
Q.66. Right to property in India is:
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Constitutional Right
(C) Statutory Right
(D) Legal Right
Answer: **
Explanation:
The right to property in India is a constitutional right under Article 300A of the Constitution of India. It is also legal right.
Q.67. Which of the following writs means to produce the body of a person?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Prohibition
(D) Habeas Corpus
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
‘Habeas Corpus’ is a Latin term which literally means ‘you may have the body’. The writ is issued to produce a person who has been detained, whether in prison or in private custody, before a court and to release him if such detention is found illegal.
Q.68. Delegated legislation was declared constitutional in:
(A) Berubari case.
(B) Re Delhi laws Act case
(C) Keshavanand Bharti case
(D) Maneka Gandhi Case
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The In Re Delhi Laws Act case was a landmark judgment in the concept of delegated legislation in India. The case established that the legislature can delegate power to administrative organs, but there is a limit to how much power can be delegated.
Q.69. A Prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein is known as:
(A) Shelf Prospectus
(B) Memorandum
(C) Red Herring Prospectus
(D) Issuing house
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A red herring prospectus (RHP) is a preliminary document that a company submits to regulatory authorities when it plans to go public through an Initial Public Offering (IPO). The RHP contains most of the company’s important details, but excludes certain specifics like the IPO price and the number of shares offered for sale.
Q.70. When there is no profit in one year or the profit of a company is not enough to pay the fixed divided on preference shares, the arrears of dividend are to be carried forward and paid before a dividend is paid on the ordinary shares. This is called:
(A) Participating preference shares
(B) Cumulative preference shares
(C) Non-cumulative preference shares
(D) Non-participating preference shares
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Cumulative preference shares, also known as cumulative preferred stock, are a type of preference share that gives shareholders the right to receive unpaid dividends before other shareholders.
Q.71. ‘Industrial dispute’ means any dispute or difference between: (i) Employers and Employers (ii) Employers and Workmen (iii) Workmen and Workmen (iv) Master and Worker
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
As per Section 2(k) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ‘industrial dispute’ means any dispute or difference between employers and employers, or between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person.
Q.72. Who among the following cannot transfer an immovable property?
(A) Hindu widow
(B) Muslim widow
(C) Natural guardian of a minor
(D) Karta or manager of joint Hindu family
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A natural guardian is a child’s biological or adopted parent who has the legal right to make decisions for the child. In India, the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 (HMGA) typically recognizes the father as the primary natural guardian of a Hindu minor. However, the mother becomes the natural guardian if the father dies.
Q.73. The doctrine of ‘Lis pendens’ was explained in the leading case of:
(A) Bellamy v. Sabine
(B) Cooper v. Cooper
(C) Streatifised v. Streafield
(D) Tulk v. Moxbay
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The arguments in Bellamy vs Sabine centred around the principle of lis pendens, which is Latin for ‘pending suit.’ The principle essentially states that any transfer of property rights during the pendency of litigation does not affect the rights of the parties involved in the lawsuit.
Q.74. X strikes ‘A’. ‘A’ is by this provocation excited to violent range. ‘Y’ a bystander intending to take advantage of ‘A’s rage and to cause him kill ‘X’, gives a revolver into ‘A’s hand for that purpose. ‘A’ kills ‘X’ with the revolver:
(A) A is liable for committing murder and Y is liable for abetting murder.
(B) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is not liable.
(C) A is liable for committing culpable homicide and Y is liable for abetting culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(D) A is not liable and Y is liable for abetting murder.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
This question is based on the illustration (f) of Explanation of Section 300, IPC.
Q.75. Right to free Legal Aid was recognised as a fundamental right under Article 21 of Indian Constitution in the case of-
(A) Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar, AIR 1979 (SC) 1360
(B) M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 (SC) 1548
(C) Madi Mchia v. Union of India (1989) 4 SC 1548
(D) Rural Shah v. State of Bihar (1983) 45 SC 14
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1978 (SC) 1548.
Q.76. In which Country was the concept of PIL originated:
(A) United Kingdom
(B) United States of America
(C) India
(D) Australia
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the United States in the 1960s. The phrase was first used by American Abraham Chayes.
Q.77. A question suggesting the answers which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called-
(A) Indecent questions
(B) Leading questions
(C) Improper questions
(D) Proper questions
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 141 of the Evidence Act, 1872 deals with Leading Questions.
Q.78. Option of puberty is a ground of divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for –
(A) Only Husband
(B) Only Wife
(C) Both Husband and Wife
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 13(2)(iv) – This section of the Act provides a special ground for divorce for Hindu women who were married before they turned 15 years old. A Hindu woman who was married before she turned 15 years old can claim divorce if she repudiated the marriage before she turned 18 years old.
Q.79. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that a child from a void marriage would be legitimate?
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 13(a)
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 16
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages.
Q.80. Which of the following appears to contribute to global cooling rather than global warming:
(A) Nitrous Oxide
(B) Aerosols
(C) Methane
(D) CFC
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Aerosols are small particles or liquid droplets that float in the air or another gas. They can be solid, like dust, or liquid, like water, and range in size from a few nanometers to tens of micrometers in diameter.
Q.81. A and B agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which in the course of fencing, may be caused without foul play and if A, while playing fairly, hurts B. A commits no offence. The provisions are given under:
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 85
(C) Section 86
(D) Section 88
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 87 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with acts that are likely to cause harm but are done without criminal intent. It states that an act is not an offense if it is done without the intention to cause death or grievous hurt, and the doer is not aware that it is likely to cause such harm. This is true if the act is done with the consent of a person who is above the age of 18, whether express or implied.
Q.82. The provision of the right of private defence are given:
(A) Under sections 96-108 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Under sections 94-106 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Under sections 96-106 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Under sections 95-106 of the Indian Penal Code
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Sections 96–106 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deal with the right of private defense, which is the right to use reasonable force to protect oneself and others from harm to their person or property.
Q.83. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performance of contract are provided in which Section of Specific Relief Act:
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 30
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 28 of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 provides for the cases in which parties cannot be compelled to perform specific performance of contract.
Q.84. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Pension
(B) Public office
(C) Right to re-entry.
(D) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law.
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act, Property of any kind may be transferred, except as otherwise provided by this Act or any other law for the time being in force. This Section also contains certain exceptions of property which cannot be transferred.
Q.85. Which of the following does not come under the ‘immovable property’ as per the T.P. Act?
(A) Sales of a ceiling fan
(B) Right to claim maintenance
(C) Right relating to lease
(D) Easementary right
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
As per the Transfer of Property Act, sales of a ceiling fan do not come under the ‘immovable property’.
Q.86. State of U.P. v. Nawab Hussain, 1977 SCR(3) 428 relates to:
(A) Res sub-judice.
(B) Res judicata.
(C) Constructive res judicata
(D) Deemed res judicata
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Constructive res judicata is a legal principle that prevents parties from relitigating issues that were or could have been raised in a previous suit. The doctrine is based on the idea that parties should not be harassed twice over the same cause.
Q.87. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai, X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi and Bangalore.
(A) The suit may be instituted in Delhi only.
(B) The suit may be instituted in Bangalore only.
(C) The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 states that suits related to specific types of claims concerning immovable property should be instituted in the Court within the local jurisdiction where the property is situated.
Q.88. An immovable property held by Y is situated at Bhopal and the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore. A suit to obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be instituted
(A) At Bhopal
(B) At Indore
(C) Either at Bhopal or at Indore
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 states that suits related to specific types of claims concerning immovable property should be instituted in the Court within the local jurisdiction where the property is situated.
Q.89. Under which section of Income Tax Act, 1961 ‘Income of other persons included in Assessee’s Total Income’
(A) 56-58
(B) 60-65
(C) 45-54
(D) All of the Above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Sections 60-65 of Income Tax Act,1961 deal with ‘Income of other persons included in Assessee’s Total Income’.
Q.90. A period of 12 Months commencing on the 1st day of April of every year is known as:
(A) Assessment year
(B) Leap year
(C) Previous year
(D) None
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 2(9) of Income Tax Act defines ‘assessment year’ as the period of twelve months commencing on the 1st day of April every year.
Q.91. Which Section of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 deals with the validity of contracts formed through electronic means:
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 10A
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 13
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 10A of the Information Technology Act (ITA) of 2000 establishes the validity of electronic contracts in India. It states that a contract is not unenforceable if it is formed, communicated, and accepted electronically. This means that an offer and acceptance can be made using an electronic record, unless the parties agree otherwise.
Q.92. Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may be called by the?
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Article 108 of the Constitution of India deals with joint sittings of both Houses of Parliament. The President of India can call a joint sitting of Parliament in certain circumstances, including: When a bill has been passed by one House and sent to the other House, but the other House rejects it; When the Houses disagree on amendments to a bill; When more than six months have passed without the other House passing a bill.
Q.93. Specific relief…………………..where the agreement is made with minor ((fill in the blank):
(A) Can get
(B) Cannot be given
(C) Can release
(D) Implemented with law
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A court cannot grant specific performance of a contract made with a minor because the contract is void-ab-initio. This is because the remedy is not mutual until the minor reaches the age of majority.
Q.94. A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover in the manner provided by:
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) The Indian Registration Act, 1908
(C) The Indian Contract Act, 1872
(D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act of 1963 deals with the recovery of immovable property. A person who is entitled to the possession of a specific immovable property can recover it by following the procedure outlined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Q.95. Section 39 of Specific Relief Act deals with:
(A) Registration of Instrument
(B) Cancellation of Instruments
(C) Correctness of Instruments
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 39 of the Specific Relief Act deals with Mandatory injunctions.
Q.96. A ‘dumb witness’ given his evidence in writing in the open court, such evidence would be treated as:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Secondary evidence
(D) Primary evidence
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines oral evidence as statements made by witnesses in court about facts that are being investigated. Oral evidence can include spoken words, gestures, or movements.
Q.97. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which of the following is not a court:
(A) Persons legally authorised to take evidence
(B) Judges
(C) Magistrates
(D) Arbitrators
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, an arbitrator is not a court because arbitral tribunals are not bound by the Evidence Act.
Q.98. Which of the following Section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 defines the term ‘Owner’?
(A) Section 2(30)
(B) Section 2(31)
(C) Section 2(25)
(D) Section 2(32)
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 2(30) of the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 defines the term ‘owner’ of a motor vehicle as: The person in whose name the vehicle is registered; The guardian of a minor owner; The person in possession of the vehicle under a hire-purchase, lease, or hypothecation agreement.
Q.99. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894 an industrial concern, ordinarily, employing not less than …………… workmen owned by an individual or by an association of individuals and not being a Company, desiring to acquire land for the erection of dwelling houses for workmen employed by the concern or for the provisions of amenities directly connected therewith shall, so far as concerns the Acquisition of such land, be deemed to be a company for the purpose of this part, and the references to company in [sections 4, 5A, 6, 7 and 50] shall be interpreted as references also to such concern. Fill in the blanks:
(A) One Hundred
(B) Two Hundred
(C) Three Hundred
(D) Four Hundred
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 38A of Land Acquisition Act, 1894 deals with industrial concern to be deemed Company for certain purposes.
Q.100. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the expression ‘Company’ means—
(A) a company as defined in section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc);
(B) a company as defined in section 2 of the Companies Act, 1956, other than a Government company referred to in clause (c);
(C) a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956) other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc);
(D) a company as defined in section 6 of the the Companies Act, 1956 (1 of 1956), other than a Government company referred to in clause (cc)
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the term ‘company’ refers to: A company as defined in Section 3 of the Companies Act, 1956, excluding government companies; A society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, or any corresponding state law; A cooperative society as defined by any State law relating to cooperative societies.
