Q1. Section 154 under IT Act is:
Options:
(A) For filing return of Income
(B) For filing return with late fee
(C) Rectification of mistakes
(D) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 154 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, pertains to rectification of mistakes in the income-tax records or an order passed by the Assessing Officer. Under Section 154, amendments can be made to orders issued under the Income Tax Act, sections 143(1), 200A(1) and 206CB(1).
Q2. Which of the following is not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2(14) of Income Tax Act:
Options:
(A) Any stock in Trade
(B) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Any stock in trade and Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central Government are not included in the Capital Asset under Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act. Refer Section 2(14) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Q3. The language which is to be used in the arbitral proceedings is decided by:
Options:
(A) The Tribunal
(B) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
(C) The petitioner
(D) The Defendant
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 22(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 states that the parties in an arbitration can agree on the language to be used in the proceedings. If the parties do not agree, the arbitral tribunal will decide on the language.
Q4. The Arbitral proceedings shall stand terminated:
Options:
(A) On making of the final award
(B) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
(C) When the parties to the dispute agree to terminate proceedings
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 32 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 covers the termination of arbitral proceedings. This includes Final award and Order by the arbitral tribunal.
Q5. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a:
Options:
(A) Order of District Collector
(B) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
(C) Decree of a civil court
(D) (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to Section 21(1) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every award of the Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a decree of the civil court.
Q6. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, Sections 18-27 states:
Options:
(A) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings
(B) Receipt and Written Communications
(C) Extent of judicial intervention
(D) Awarding final decision
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Sections 18-27 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 state the conduct of arbitral proceedings.
Q7. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on:
Options:
(A) The High Court
(B) The Court of civil judge
(C) The District Judge
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The provisions of Section 80 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) are binding on the Government and public officers.
Q8. Temporary Injunction can be granted:
Options:
(A) Suo moto
(B) Ex parte
(C) Hearing both parties
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Order 39 of the CPC provides for temporary injunctions. A temporary injunction is a provisional relief that aims to protect the subject-matter in the existing condition, without the defendant’s interference or threat. The granting of a temporary injunction is a matter of discretion of the court.
Q9. Right to Appeal is a
Options:
(A) Natural Right
(B) Inherent Right
(C) Statutory Right
(D) Delegated Right
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The right to appeal is a statutory right that allows an aggrieved party to appeal a court’s decision to a higher authority. The right to appeal is not a natural right, but is created by statute.
Q10. The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was made in
Options:
(A) 2000
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2004
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The last amendment to the Indian Succession Act was the Indian Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002.
Q11. Which is the correct statement:
Options:
(A) There can be a Will without a codicil
(B) There can be a codicil without a Will
(C) Every Will has a codicil
(D) A codicil proceeds a Will
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Codicil is an addition supplement to a will, either to add to, remove, or alter the provisions of the will. If a testator intends to make a few changes to the Will, without changing the entire Will, he can do so by making a codicil to the Will.
Q12. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a Will should be attested by:
Options:
(A) Two witnesses
(B) Two or more witnesses
(C) Only one witness who is not a relative of testator
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act of 1925, a will must be attested by two or more witnesses.
Q13. Iddat’ under Mohammedan law refers to:
Options:
(A) A gift made on the occasion of marriage
(B) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
(C) Attaining of puberty
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Iddat is the period a woman must observe after the death of her spouse or after a divorce, during which she may not marry another man.
Q14. Under the Christian Marriage Act, the Marriage Registrar for any district is appointed by:
Options:
(A) State Government
(B) The Central Government
(C) The Clergyman of the Church
(D) High Court judges
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 7 of the Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 states that the State Government can appoint one or more Christians to be the Marriage Registrar for a district.
Q15. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from:
Options:
(A) French Administration
(B) British Administration
(C) Swedish Administration
(D) German Administration
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The word ‘Ombudsman’ is originated from the Swedish administration which means ‘grievance person’. It was first used in its modern sense in 1809 when the Swedish Parliament established the office of Justitie ombudsman.
Q16. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by:
Options:
(A) Central Government or State Government
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) State Public Service Commission
(D) Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
As per Section 3, an inquiry commission is appointed by the appropriate government and the term ‘appropriate government’ is defined under section 2(a) as Centre or State Government.
Q17. Information Technology Act was enacted in the year:
Options:
(A) 1988
(B) 1996
(C) 2000
(D) 2004
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
IT Act was enacted in the year 2000 and it came into force on 17th October, 2000.
Q18. Government of India passed Information Technology Act in 2000 with the objective:
Options:
(A) To provide legal sanction to all transactions for e-commerce
(B) To facilitate electronic filing of all documents to the Government
(C) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Information Technology Act of 2000 was passed by the Government of India to: Recognize electronic records, Promote electronic transactions, and Promote digital signatures.
Q19. Right to Personal liberty includes:
Options:
(A) Right against custodial violence
(B) Right of under trials to separate them from convicted persons
(C) Right against Public hanging
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The right to personal liberty is the freedom to make choices and decisions about one’s life without interference from others or the Government. It includes Freedom of movement, Freedom from arrest, and Freedom of speech.
Q20. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force of India is:
Options:
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) The Defence Minister
(D) Chief Marshal
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces.
Q21. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is:
Options:
(A) 62 years
(B) 60 years
(C) 58 years
(D) 65 years
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
As per Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India, every judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.
Q22. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of:
Options:
(A) Concurrent list
(B) State list
(C) Union list
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Concurrent list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains Criminal Procedure Code.
Q23. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been defined in:
Options:
(A) Section 2 (a) of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 2 (b) of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 2 (c) of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of IPC
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, offences have been classified as ‘bailable’ and ‘non-bailable’ offences. In the case of bailable offences, it is binding upon the investigating officer to grant bail.
Q24. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C., Special Executive Magistrate may be appointed by:
Options:
(A) Central Government
(B) High Court
(C) Supreme Court
(D) State Government
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 21 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that the State Government may appoint, for such term as it may think fit, Executive Magistrates, to be known as Special Executive Magistrates for particular areas.
Q25. Police may carry out personal search on an arrested person:
Options:
(A) U/s. 49, Cr.P.C.
(B) U/s. 50, Cr.P.C.
(C) U/s. 51, Cr.P.C.
(D) U/s. 52, Cr.P.C.
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The police can search an arrested person under Section 51 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
Q26. The Special Court is:
Options:
(A) Not subordinate to High Court
(B) Superior to High Court
(C) Supplement to High Court
(D) Equal to Supreme Court
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Special Court established under Section 3 of the Special Court (Trial of Offences relating to Transactions in Securities) Act, 1992 is not subordinate to the High Court.
Q27. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by a Magistrate:
Options:
(A) When the police decides not to investigate the case
(B) When the investigation is still going on
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 159 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 gives Magistrates the power to: Direct investigations under Section 190 of the CrPC; Stop police investigations; Conduct preliminary inquiries if the interest of justice warrants it.
Q28. Statement recorded during investigation U/s. 161 can be used in trial:
Options:
(A) For contradicting the witness
(B) For corroborating the witness
(C) Incorporating in the charge sheet
(D) Discharging the accused
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of India allows a police officer to examine a person who is thought to be knowledgeable about the facts of a case.
Q29. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a Magistrate of First class or Second class is provided:
Options:
(A) Under Section 173 of Criminal Procedure Code
(B) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 190 of the Cr.P.C. deals with the Cognizance of offences by Magistrate. Refer Section 190.
Q30. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in Cr. P.C.
Options:
(A) U/s. 214
(B) U/s. 215
(C) U/s. 216
(D) U/s. 210
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 gives the court the power to add or alter charges at any time before the judgment is pronounced.
Q31. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits filing a case against the Government?
Options:
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 8
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 6(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states that no suit can be filed against the Government. Suits cannot be brought after six months from the date of dispossession. There is no appeal or review of any orders or decrees passed in these suits.
Q32. The Patent Act became a law in:
Options:
(A) 1970
(B) 1975
(C) 1996
(D) 1966
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Patent Act became a law in 1970 and it came into force on April 20, 1972.
Q33. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by:
Options:
(A) Bank Tribunal
(B) Consumer Forum
(C) Magistrate Court
(D) Sessions Court
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A Magistrate tries cases under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act (NI Act) in a summary trial.
Q34. The provision of establishing Public Service Commission is made under:
Options:
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 315
(C) Article 320
(D) Article 325
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Article 315 of the Constitution states that subject to the provisions of this article, there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
Q35. The case Krishna Gopal v. State of M.P. relates to:
Options:
(A) Water pollution
(B) Air and water pollution
(C) Noise and air pollution
(D) Water and noise pollution
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The case of Krishna Gopal v. State of M.P. is about a complaint against a glucose factory that was causing air pollution in a residential area. The case established that the Criminal Procedure Code’s Section 133 can be invoked to address public nuisances, even if there aren’t many complaints or protests.
Q36. What is the punishment for advocates if the established finding of the Bar Council is misappropriation?
Options:
(A) Impose a fine
(B) Name of the advocate will be struck off from the Rolls
(C) Suspension from practice
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 35(3) of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council the power to take action against an advocate who has been found guilty of misconduct.
Q37. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar Council, one can appeal to:
Options:
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Bar Council of India
(D) Indian Law Commission
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 37(1) of the Advocates Act of 1961 allows any person aggrieved by a disciplinary committee order from a State Bar Council to appeal to the Bar Council of India.
Q38. Which Section of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates:
Options:
(A) Section 29
(B) Section 35
(C) Section 37
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 35 of Advocates Act provides punishment for misconduct of advocates.
Q39. Section 24 of Advocates Act deals with
Options:
(A) Qualification of advocates who should be enrolled in the Bar
(B) Qualification to become the Advocate General
(C) Qualification to become the Solicitor General in India
(D) (B) and (C)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 24 of Advocates Act contains provision relating to Persons who may be admitted as advocates on a State roll.
Q40. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, which is helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation
Options:
(A) Insurance certificate
(B) Medical examination
(C) Medical certificate
(D) (B) and (C)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Medical examination and medical certificate are helpful in deciding the extent of injury for compensation under the Workmen’s Compensation Act.
Q41. Section 23 of the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the power of
Options:
(A) A Court
(B) A Tribunal
(C) A quasi-judicial form
(D) All of the above.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 23 of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, covers the powers and procedures of Commissioners. The Commissioner has the following powers: Taking evidence on oath, Enforcing the attendance of witnesses, Compelling the production of documents and material objects, and Having all the powers of a Civil Court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Q42. The objective of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is:
Options:
(A) Industrial peace and economic justice
(B) To create harmonious relation between employer and employee
(C) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 was passed to maintain peaceful industrial relations in India by establishing mechanisms to investigate and settle industrial disputes.
Q43. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, provides the definition of:
Options:
(A) Lock out
(B) Lay off
(C) Strike
(D) Hartal
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to Section 2(q) of Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘strike’ means a cessation of work by a body of persons employed in any industry acting in combination, or a concerned refusal, or a refusal under a common understanding, of any number of persons who are or have been so employed to continue to work or to accept employment.
Q44. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from:
Options:
(A) 1st March, 1955
(B) 1st March, 1986
(C) 1st March, 1994
(D) 1st March, 1894
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Land Acquisition Act came into force on 1st March, 1894.
Q45. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the ‘arable land’ means:
Options:
(A) Useful for residential purpose
(B) Useful for commercial purpose
(C) Useful for cultivation
(D) Useful for industrial purpose
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Under the Land Acquisition Act, arable land means the land which is fit for cultivation.
Q46. Which one is not a fundamental right?
Options:
(A) Right to Freedom of Assembly
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to freedom of speech and expression
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The 44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978 had abolished the right to property which is contained under Article 31 from the category of fundamental rights. It is made constitutional right under Article 300A.
Q47. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that:
Options:
(A) Confiscation of Passport was correct
(B) Right to go abroad is not within the meaning of Article 21
(C) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of Article 19(1)(a) but the confiscation of Passport is not in accordance to the law
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India is a landmark case that supports Article 21 of the Constitution’s right to personal liberty. The complainant’s passport was seized by authorities under the Passport Act, which launched this lawsuit.
Q48. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement:
Options:
(A) In the interest of general public
(B) In the interest of political leaders
(C) In the interest of women safety
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Article 19(5) states that the reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right of free movement in the interest of general public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe.
Q49. Which of the following can claim article 19 of the Constitution?
Options:
(A) A company
(B) A corporation
(C) Only citizens
(D) Citizens and aliens
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Article 19 of the Constitution can be claimed by only Indian citizens.
Q50. Clause (3) of Article 20(i) of the Indian Constitution says that no accused person shall be compelled to be:
Options:
(A) An accused
(B) A witness
(C) A witness against himself
(D) Hostile witness
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Clause (3) of Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution states that no accused person shall be compelled to be a witness against themselves. This means that an accused person cannot be forced to provide evidence or testimony that may incriminate them.
Q51. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India is popularly known as
Options:
(A) Judges Transfer case
(B) Illegal Detention case
(C) Mandal Commission case
(D) Constitutional case
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The case Indra Sawhney v. Union of India is popularly known as the Mandal Commission case or the Mandal verdict.
Q52. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers were benefitted:
Options:
(A) N.K. Chanda v. State of Haryana
(B) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(C) P.V. Narasimharao v. Union of India
(D) Ratlam Municipal Council v. Vardichand
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, 1985 SCC (3) 545.
Q53. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed under:
Options:
(A) Article 226 of the Constitution and Article 32 of the Constitution
(B) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to the Constitution of India, the petition can be filed under Article 226 before a High Court or under Article 32 before the Supreme Court of India.
Q54. Supreme Court in S.P. Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 (SC) 149, decided:
Options:
(A) Free Legal Aid
(B) Bonded labours
(C) Judges Transfer
(D) Illegal detention
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
S.P. Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 (SC) 149 is also known as Judges Transfer case.
Q55. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath case evolved:
Options:
(A) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
(B) Public Trust doctrine
(C) Separation of power doctrine
(D) Public Interest doctrine
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath & Others, (1997) 1 SCC 388 observed that the public trust doctrine, as discussed by us in this judgment is a part of the law of the land.
Q56. Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan case is related to:
Options:
(A) Sexual harassment at workplace
(B) Protection of civil rights
(C) Uniform civil code
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The 1997 case Vishaka and Others v. State of Rajasthan was a landmark Supreme Court decision that addressed sexual harassment in the workplace in India.
Q57. Court’s power to award compensation is provided in Specific Relief Act:
Options:
(A) Under Section 20
(B) Under Section 21
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Power of court to award compensation is contained under Section 21 of the SRA.
Q58. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian Evidence Act:
Options:
(A) By the opinion of Experts
(B) By the evidence of a person who is acquainted with the handwriting
(C) After police verification
(D) (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Section 47 of the Indian Evidence Act, when the Court has to form an opinion as to the person by whom any document was written or signed, the opinion of any person acquainted with the handwriting of the person by whom it is supposed to be written or signed that it was or was not written or signed by that person, is a relevant fact.
Q59. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides
Options:
(A) No confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
(B) Confession made by a person in police custody is admissible
(C) Confession made in the immediate presence of a magistrate is admissible
(D) (A) and (C)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 26 of Evidence Act provides that no confession made by any person whilst he is in the custody of a police-officer, unless it be made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate, shall be proved as against such person.
Q60. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes:
Options:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The term ‘evidence’ includes any information that points to the validity of a fact or belief. In law, evidence is any material item or assertion of fact that can be submitted to a tribunal to determine the truth of a matter under investigation.
Q61. Which is the authority that determines the language of the Court other than High Court within a given State, under Section 272 of Cr.P.C.
Options:
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 272 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 deals with the language of courts within a State, excluding the High Court. The State Government can decide the language of each court within the State.
Q62. A decree can be
Options:
(A) Final
(B) Preliminary
(C) Only Preliminary not final
(D) Either preliminary or final
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A decree is a legally binding decision or command that is entered into a court record. It can be: Preliminary, Final, and Partly preliminary and partly final.
Q63. Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC:
Options:
(A) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
(B) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
(C) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to Section 2(6) of CPC, ‘foreign judgment’ means the judgment of a foreign Court.
Q64. The Minimum number of persons required to incorporate a Public Company is:
Options:
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 2
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
As per Section 3(1)(A) of the Companies Act, 2013, a public company may be formed for any lawful purpose by seven or more persons.
Q65. A Private company can commence business as soon as it receives:
Options:
(A) Certification of incorporation
(B) Letter of intent
(C) Occupation certificate
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A private company can start its business operations as soon as it receives the certificate of incorporation from the registrar of companies.
Q66. Which of the following is not an essential of a Contract of Guarantee:
Options:
(A) Concurrence of three parties
(B) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable
(C) Liabilities to be legally enforceable
(D) Existence of only one contract
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A contract of guarantee is a legal agreement between three parties: the creditor, the principal debtor, and the surety. The essential elements of a contract of guarantee are: Three parties, Secondary liability, Promise or liability, and Continuing guarantee.
Q67. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract Act under Section:
Options:
(A) 180 of the Act
(B) 181 of the Act
(C) 182 of the Act
(D) 183 of the Act
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 182 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term ‘agent’ as a person employed to do any act for another, or to represent another in dealings with third persons.
Q68. What is the maximum number of partners in Banking business?
Options:
(A) Eight
(B) Ten
(C) Twelve
(D) Sixteen
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Companies Act, 2013 has increased the maximum number of partners in banking business from 10 to 100.
Q69. A person who gives the guarantee is called:
Options:
(A) Bailee
(B) Creditor
(C) Debtor
(D) Surety
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The person who gives a guarantee is called the surety. Surety: The person who gives the guarantee. Principal debtor: The person in respect of whose default the guarantee is given. Creditor: The person to whom the guarantee is given.
Q70. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against the goods:
Options:
(A) Lien
(B) Stoppage in transit
(C) Right of resale
(D) To ascertain price
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Section 46(1) of Sale of Goods Act, 1930, unpaid seller has the right of lien, in case of the insolvency of the buyer a right of stopping the goods in transit after he has parted with the possession of them, and a right of re-sale.
Q71. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
Options:
(A) Injunctions
(B) Court’s discretion performance on specific
(C) Cancellation of instruments
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Part III, i.e., Preventive Relief of the SRA provides for Injunctions.
Q72. Which of the following is not of civil nature:
Options:
(A) Right to take out procession
(B) Right to Worship in a temple
(C) Right to Caste and Religion
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Right to Caste and Religion is not of civil nature.
Q73. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata applies
Options:
(A) The suit is liable to be dismissed
(B) The suit is liable to be stayed
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The doctrine of res judicata applies when a matter has already been decided in a court of law, and the same parties are not allowed to relitigate the same issues.
Q74. Under Section 16, CPC a suit relating to immovable property can be filed in a Court whose local jurisdiction is:
Options:
(A) Where the property is situated
(B) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or carries on business
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 16 of CPC provides for the suits to be instituted where subject-matter situate.
Q75. Pleading means:
Options:
(A) Plaint and written statement
(B) Plaint only
(C) Written statement
(D) Oral statement by the pleader
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
As per Order 6 Rule 1 CPC, ‘Pleading’ shall mean plaint or written statement.
Q76. On failure to file a written statement, under Order VIII, Rule 10 of CPC, the Court may:
Options:
(A) pass any other order
(B) Order for striking off the decree
(C) May pronounce the judgement at once
(D) Any of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Under Order VIII, Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, if a party fails to file a written statement within the time allowed by the court, the court may: Pronounce judgment against the party, Make any order in relation to the suit that it thinks fit, and Draw up a decree.
Q77. What is meant by Homicide?
Options:
(A) Suicide by human being not at home
(B) Suicide at home
(C) Killing of a human being by another human being
(D) Killing of human being by animal
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), culpable homicide is the act of causing the death of a person, either intentionally or unintentionally.
Q78. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence:
Options:
(A) Under Sections 274-276 of IPC
(B) Under Sections 277-278 of IPC
(C) Under sections 272-273 of IPC
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable offence under the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Section 272 punishes the adulteration of food or drink intended for sale. Section 273 punishes the sale of food or drink that is noxious, unfit for consumption, or has been rendered unfit for consumption.
Q79. Maximum punishment for waging a war against the Government of India under IPC is
Options:
(A) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
(C) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
(D) Death sentence
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
As per Section 121 of IPC, whoever wages war against the Government of India, or attempts to wage such war, or abets the waging of such war, shall be punished with death, or imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
Q80. Offences relating to elections are:
Options:
(A) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
(B) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent amendment
(C) Are not covered by IPC
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Chapter 9A of IPC contains offences relating to elections.
Q81. Rupan Deol Bajaj v. K.P.S. Gill, is a famous case which the Supreme Court decided on
Options:
(A) Wrongful restraint
(B) Wrongful confinement
(C) Outrage the modesty of a woman
(D) Maintenance to the divorced women
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In 1988, Rupan Deol Bajaj, an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, filed a complaint against K.P.S. Gill for sexual harassment. Gill was convicted in 1996 under Sections 354 and 509 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Q82. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the person who is taken in adoption:
Options:
(A) Must be a Hindu only
(B) A Hindu or Jew
(C) May be Hindu or Christian
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 states that a person can be adopted if they are Hindu, have not been adopted before, are unmarried unless a custom or usage permits otherwise, are under 15 years of age unless a custom or usage permits otherwise, and there is no child of the same sex already living in the home.
Q83. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the year:
Options:
(A) 1956
(B) 1954
(C) 1955
(D) 1978
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 made the polygamy illegal and Section 6(1) provides that neither party should have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
Q84. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter Kriti:
Options:
(A) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it
(B) The marriage is void
(C) The marriage is valid only if the Court approves it
(D) The marriage is valid only if the Panchayat permits
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 5(4) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 states that the parties to marriage should not be within the degrees of prohibited relationship unless the custom or usage governing each of them permits of a marriage between the two.
Q85. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning of Stream is defined as:
Options:
(A) Includes a river but not a water course
(B) Includes a water course but not a river
(C) Includes river and water course, but not subterranean waters
(D) Includes a river, a water course and subterranean river
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 2(j) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Q86. Section 2(1)(ZB), of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, defines the meaning of:
Options:
(A) Licence
(B) Trade Mark
(C) Registration
(D) Cancellation
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
As per Section 2(1)(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 ‘trade mark’ means a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others.
Q87. Outraging the modesty of a woman is punishable under IPC:
Options:
(A) Section 376 (a)
(B) Section 376 (b)
(C) Section 354
(D) Section 498
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 354 of IPC deals with the Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty.
Q88. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the crime of:
Options:
(A) House breaking
(B) Dishonest misappropriation of property
(C) Forgery
(D) Forgery with cheating
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 463 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the crime of forgery. Forgery is the act of making a false document or electronic record with the intent to cause damage or injury to a person or the public.
Q89. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under:
Options:
(A) Sections 503 to 506
(B) Sections 509 to 516
(C) Sections 319 to 329
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Chapter 12 of IPC explains Criminal Intimidation under Sections 503 to 506.
Q90. Under Sections 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act the oral statement means:
Options:
(A) All statements made before the Court by the witness
(B) All statements made before the police by the accused
(C) All statements of facts which a witness heard to say
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 59 deals with the proof of facts by oral evidence and Section 60 provides that the oral evidence must be direct.
Q91. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
Options:
(A) All Judges
(B) All Magistrates
(C) All Arbitrators
(D) (a) a and (b)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a ‘Court’ includes all judges and Magistrates, and all people who are legally authorized to take evidence, except arbitrators and tribunals.
Q92. Admissibility of contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of:
Options:
(A) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Under Section 65B of Indian Evidence Act
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 65B of Evidence Act provides for the admissibility of electronic records.
Q93. Which is not a public record as per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act:
Options:
(A) Documents forming the acts or records of the sovereign authority
(B) Documents forming the acts or records of official bodies, tribunals
(C) Documents and correspondence from advocate and Notary office
(D) Documents and circulars from University of Delhi
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 74 of Evidence Act deals with public documents.
Q94. Section 67 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides:
Options:
(A) Possession of driving licence while driving
(B) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC certificate in the vehicle
(C) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is detected
(D) State Government’s power to control the road transport
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 67 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 deals with the Power of State Government to control road transport.
Q95. The term ‘Tort’ is a
Options:
(A) Latin Word
(B) French Word
(C) English word
(D) Italian word
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The term ‘tort’ is a French word which is derived from a Latin word ‘Tortum’ which means ‘twisted’.
Q96. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
Options:
(A) A person is generally liable for his own wrongful act
(B) A person is liable for the wrongful act done by other person
(C) Person is liable for the wrongful act in his absence
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Vicarious liability is a legal concept that holds a person or entity responsible for the actions of another person or entity. It is a form of secondary liability that can apply in a number of situations, including when an employer is held responsible for the actions of an employee.
Q97. Under Section 2(1)(f) of Consumer Protection Act, 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault, imperfection or shortcomings in ……….in relation to the goods:
Options:
(A) Quality and Quantity
(B) Potency
(C) Purity or standard
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Section 2(1)(f) of the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), 1986, a defect is any fault, imperfection, or shortcoming in the quality, quantity, potency, purity, or standard of a product.
Q98. Which of the following falls under the categories of act of God:
Options:
(A) Storm and cyclone
(B) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood
(C) Lightning and thunder
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Act of God is a defence used in cases of torts when an event over which the defendant has no control over occurs and the damage is caused by the forces of nature.
Q99. Income Tax Act was enacted in
Options:
(A) 1951
(B) 1961
(C) 1971
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Income Tax Act was enacted in the year 1961 and it came into force on April 1, 1962.
Q100. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act, as:
Options:
(A) Profits and gains
(B) Dividend
(C) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust for charitable Purpose
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act defines income as including: Salaries, Income from House Property, Profits and Gains of Business or Profession, Capital Gains, and Income from Other Sources.
