Q1. The objective of the EU Directive on mediation is:
Options:
(A) Reducing back logs of cases at the courts in the member States
(B) Dividing the cases between all dispute resolution methods
(C) Economical reasons in times of crisis, thus ensuring that mediators will have a proper income
(D) Ensuring better access to alternative dispute resolution in cross border commercial conflicts
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The objective of the EU Directive on Mediation is to promote the use of mediation as an alternative to judicial proceedings to amicably settle disputes. The directive also aims to ensure a balanced relationship between mediation and judicial proceedings.
Q2. Fulfilling the constitutional obligation under Article 300A, the Land Acquisition Act, is the law providing for:
Options:
(A) Acquisition of land and taking over possession of land
(B) Assessment of compensation
(C) Payment of compensation
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Land Acquisition Act is a law that fulfills the constitutional obligation under Article 300A of the Constitution of India by providing for: Compensation, Due procedure.
Q3. Minto-Morley reform is associated with which Act?
Options:
(A) Indian Council Act, 1912
(B) Indian Council Act, 1856
(C) Indian Council Act, 1908
(D) Indian Council Act, 1909
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms. The Act was intended to increase the involvement of Indians in the governance of British India and introduced elections to legislative councils.
Q4. Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon is an important case relating to professional misconduct due to which factor:
Options:
(A) Advocate attending the court with fire arms
(B) Not appearing before the court deliberately and intentionally
(C) Suppression of material facts with intention to harass poor persons
(D) Defrauding the client by exploiting the client’s illiteracy
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The case of Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon is an important case related to professional misconduct due to the act of obtaining a signature on a blank vakalatnama and blank watermarked papers to defraud a client.
Q5. Where the complaint alleges a defect in the goods which cannot be determined without proper analysis or test of the goods, the sample of goods forwarded to appropriate laboratory for laboratory test. Such types of case finding report within…….. days
Options:
(A) 30 days
(B) 40 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 50 days
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was created to make it easier and faster for consumers to get redressal for grievances. The Act gives consumers rights and a way to file complaints against suppliers who may be cheating or harassing them.
Q6. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based on English Doctrine of Res Gestae
Options:
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The doctrine of res gestae is discussed in Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q7. The various words used to denote Mens Rea under the IPC and are defined in the code itself are:
Options:
(A) Voluntary, dishonestly, fraudulently & reason to believe
(B) Corruptly and want only
(C) Malignantly and maliciously
(D) Rashly and negligently
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The word mens rea has nowhere been used in the IPC but it has been applied in the following two ways: (i) While defining offences, words used indicate actual criminal intent required for the offence. The expressions fraudulently, dishonestly, voluntarily, knowingly and intentionally, etc.
Q8. Under Section 25 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 the amount of compensation awarded by the court—
Options:
(A) Shall not be less than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
(B) Shall not be equal to the amount 151
(C) Shall not be more than the amount awarded by the Collector under Section 11
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 says that the amount of compensation awarded by the Court shall not be less than the amount awarded by the Collector under section 11.
Q9. A Hindu’s widow, if there are more than one, shall take—
Options:
(A) One share each
(B) One share for all the widows
(C) One share each to the maximum of two shares, if there are more than two widows
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Rule 1 of Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 States that the intestate’s widow, or all widows together if there are multiple widows, will receive one share.
Q10. In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been discussed by the Supreme Court in:
Options:
(A) Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.
(B) State of U.P. v. Deorman Upadhyay
(C) Ram Bharose v. State of U.P.
(D) Rameshwar v. State of Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh, 1952 SCR 526.
Q11. Minimum number of members required to apply for Incorporation Certificate in a Public Ltd. Company is:
Options:
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 50
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Minimum 7 shareholders are required to form a public limited company. Minimum of 3 directors is required to form a public limited company. A minimum authorised share capital of Rs. 1 lakh is required.
Q12. Complaint means allegation in writing made by a complainant that:
Options:
(A) An unfair trade practice or restrictive trade practice has been adapted by any traders or service provider.
(B) The goods bought by him or agreed to be bought by him suffer from one or more defect
(C) A traders or the service provider as the case may be has charged for the goods or for the services mentioned in the complaint a price in excess of the price
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 2(C) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Q13. In a written statement, the defendant can claim:
Options:
(A) Set off
(B) Counter-claim
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In a written statement, a defendant can claim a set-off or counter-claim against the plaintiff.
Q14. An appeal to the High Court against the order of ITAT should be filed within:
Options:
(A) 45 days when the order is communicated
(B) 60 days when the order is communicated
(C) 90 days when the order is communicated
(D) 120 days when the order is communicated
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
CIT or assessee aggrieved by any order of ITAT may file appeal to High Court within 120 days from the date of order received, along with a memorandum of appeal precisely stating therein the substantial question of law involved.
Q15. When can the Supreme Court refuse to grant remedy under Article 32?
Options:
(A) Delay
(B) Malicious petition
(C) Infructuous petition
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court can refuse to grant a remedy under Article 32 of the Constitution of India in the following cases: The aggrieved person can get a remedy from another court; The petition is malicious or futile; The petitioner has not asked for the proper writ applicable to their case; No fundamental right has been infringed; Disputed facts have to be investigated.
Q16. In respect of family relations the law applicable in India is:
Options:
(A) Secular law in India
(B) Statutory law
(C) Religious law
(D) Personal law of the parties
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The law applicable in India for family relations is a complex interplay of personal laws and secular laws. The applicable law depends on the individual’s religion and the personal law they are subject to.
Q17. The term “sabbatical” is connected with
Options:
(A) Paid leave for study
(B) Paternity leave
(C) Maternity leave
(D) Quarantine leave
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The term ‘sabbatical’ is connected to the Sabbath, a day of rest in the Bible. The word ‘sabbatical’ comes from the Greek word ‘sabbaton’, which comes from the Hebrew word shabbath, meaning ‘rest’.
Q18. The undertaking contained in a promissory note, to pay a certain sum of money is:
Options:
(A) Conditional
(B) Unconditional
(C) May be conditional or unconditional depending upon the circumstances
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A ‘Promissory note’ is an instrument in writing (not being a bank-note or a currency-note) containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker, to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of, a certain person, or to the bearer of the instrument.
Q19. Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act, provides that a child would be treated as legitimate if after dissolution of marriage, he/she has born within:
Options:
(A) 180 days
(B) 270 days
(C) 280 days
(D) 300 days
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act.
Q20. Maintenance application under Section 18(2) of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act is filed in
Options:
(A) Matrimonial Court
(B) District Court
(C) High Court
(D) Any of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 18(2) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 States that a Hindu wife can live separately from her husband without losing her claim to maintenance if certain conditions are met.
Q21. There is either theft or extortion, it is
Options:
(A) Robbery
(B) Dacoity
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) Receiving stolen property
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
When there is either theft or extortion, it is robbery. Robbery is a criminal offence that involves the use of violence or the threat of violence to force someone to give up their property. It is an aggravated form of theft or extortion, or both.
Q22. In most EU member countries, which of the following is the most visible form of ADR?
Options:
(A) Mediation
(B) Arbitration
(C) Litigation
(D) Conciliation
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Arbitration is the most visible form of ADR in most EU member countries.
Q23. Which one of the following is known as Consumer Disputes Redressal Agency?
Options:
(A) District Forum
(B) State Commission
(C) National Commission
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Chapter III of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides for the Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies.
Q24. The rule is that penal statutes must be constructed:
Options:
(A) Liberally
(B) Strictly
(C) Golden rule
(D) Mischievous rule
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The rule is that penal statutes must be strictly construed. This means that penal statutes should be interpreted narrowly, in favor of the person being penalized.
Q25. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team to serve as National Agency for incident response is constituted under section:
Options:
(A) 71 of IT Act
(B) 70 of IT Act
(C) 70(A) of IT Act
(D) 70(B) of IT Act
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is designated as the national agency for incident response under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000. The Central Government appoints the CERT-In through a notification in the Official Gazette.
Q26. In relation to Relevancy of Character in civil cases, which of the following is not correct?
Options:
(A) It is not at all relevant
(B) It is relevant when it affects award of damage
(C) When character is itself an issue
(D) When it appears from the fact otherwise relevant
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer Section 52 and Section 55 of Evidence Act.
Q27. The chief elements necessary to constitute a crime are:
Options:
(A) A human being
(B) An evil intent
(C) Injury to another human being or society
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The main elements of a crime are: Actus reus (the criminal act itself, which can be any voluntary human behaviour), Mens rea (the criminal intent or mental state of the defendant at the time of the crime), and Causation (the harm caused was a direct result of the defendant’s action).
Q28. Income which accrue or arise outside India but are directly received into India are taxable in case of:
Options:
(A) Residents only
(B) Both ordinarily residents and non-residents
(C) Non-resident
(D) All the assessees
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Income which accrue or arise outside India but are directly received into India are taxable in case of all the assessees.
Q29. The provision relating to Abolition of Untouchability is given in:
Options:
(A) Article 23
(B) Article 24
(C) Article 17
(D) Article 15
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolished ‘untouchability’, forbade its practice in any form and made enforcement of any disability arising out of ‘untouchability’, an offence punishable in accordance with law.
Q30. Where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding Rs. 100, against this order where an appeal shall lie:
Options:
(A) In the Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) In the Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 376(C) of Cr.P.C. provides that there shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a Magistrate of the first class passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding one hundred rupees.
Q31. Government employees may refer their unresolved grievances and labour dispute to—
Options:
(A) Internal Labour Department
(B) Bureau of Labour Relations
(C) Public Sector Labour-Management Council
(D) Department of Labour
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Government employees can refer their unresolved grievances and labour disputes to the Internal Labour Department.
Q32. Who is an adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948?
Options:
(A) Who has completed 17 years of age
(B) Who is less than 18 years of age
(C) Who is more than 15 years but less than 18 years of age
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to the Factories Act of 1948, an adolescent is a person who is at least 15 years old but younger than 18 years old. The Act also states that adolescents can only work in factories between 6 AM and 7 PM.
Q33. ‘A’ does not fall under the clause of Memorandum of Association. ‘A’ here is:
Options:
(A) Subscription
(B) Director
(C) Capital
(D) Situation
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The MOA under the Companies act, 2013 contains the following clauses: Name clause, Objects clause, Registered office clause, Liability clause, Capital clause and Association clause.
Q34. PIL is criticised on the ground of:
Options:
(A) Private motive
(B) Political ends
(C) Tremendous increase in the litigation
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
PIL has been criticised on the ground of private motive, political ends or it would result in the tremendous increase in the litigation.
Q35. To close down a factory the occupier has to give how many days notice to the authorities:
Options:
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 14 days
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Section 25FFA of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Q36. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, came into force on:
Options:
(A) 18th November, 1986
(B) 19th November, 1986
(C) 20th November, 1986
(D) 21st November, 1986
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 came into force on 19th November, 1986.
Q37. What should be the difference of age under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, if a female adopts male:
Options:
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 16 years
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a female Hindu who adopts a male child must be at least 21 years older than the child.
Q38. “Dealer” includes a person who is engaged—
Options:
(A) In building bodies for attachment to chassis; or
(B) In the repair of motor vehicles; or
(C) In the business of hypothecation, leasing or hire-purchase of motor vehicle;
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The term ‘dealer’ can refer to a number of people or businesses, including Motor vehicle dealer, Security dealer, and Repurchase agreement dealer.
Q39. ‘A’, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause the death of ‘Z’, who suffers under a painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death & intending in good faith Z’s benefit performs that operation on Z, with Z’s consent. A has committed no offence, it is contained in:
Options:
(A) Section 88 of the IPC
(B) Section 89 of the IPC
(C) Section 90 of the IPC
(D) Section 57 of the IPC
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 88 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) states that an act is not an offence if it is done in good faith for the benefit of a person who has given their consent to the act, even if the act may cause harm. The consent can be express or implied.
Q40. Under Section 115, CPC, in the exercise of its revisional jurisdiction, a High Court can do which of the following things:
Options:
(A) To call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court, subordinate to the High Court.
(B) To vary/reverse any decree or order against which an appeal lies to the High Court
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC) gives the High Court the power to review cases decided by subordinate courts. This power is called revisional jurisdiction.
Q41. A warrant of arrest may be extended:
Options:
(A) To that place where the offender has committed the offence
(B) At any place within India
(C) To the place specified under the Criminal Procedure Code
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 77 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) states that a warrant of arrest can be executed anywhere in India.
Q42. Which is not included within the meaning of artistic work under Copyright Act?
Options:
(A) Drawing
(B) Work of architecture
(C) Work of craftsmanship
(D) Work of carpenter
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 2(C) of the Copyright Act, 1957.
Q43. Which of the following statement is
Options:
(A) A confession made by an accused to the police officer is relevant
(B) A confession made by an accused in police custody to a magistrate is not relevant
(C) A confession made by an accused in the police custody and discovery made from the information received from confession, both confession and discovery are relevant
(D) None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 26 of Evidence Act deals with the Confession by accused while in custody of police not to be proved against him.
Q44. In which of the following cases a Set Off can be claimed?
Options:
(A) ‘A’ owes the partnership firm of ‘B’ & ‘C’ Rs. 1000/-. B dies leaving C surviving. A sues C to a debt of Rs. 1500/- due in his separate character. C wants to set off the debt of Rs. 1000/-.
(B) A sues B for Rs. 20,000/-. B wants to set off the claim for damages for breach of contract for specific performance.
(C) Both (A) & (b)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A set-off is a legal defense in the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) that allows a defendant to reduce or discharge a plaintiff’s claim by asserting a claim of their own.
Q45. It refers to an authority derived from official character merely, not expressly conferred upon the individual character, but rather annexed to official position:
Options:
(A) Designation
(B) Ex-Officio
(C) Appointment
(D) Ad interim
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The term ‘ex-officio’ means by virtue of one’s position or status.
Q46. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes:
Options:
(A) Process of Conciliation
(B) Process of Arbitration
(C) Enforcement of Foreign Awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Part III of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes the process of conciliation. It applies to legal disputes and all related proceedings. The conciliator’s role is to help the parties reach an amicable settlement.
Q47. The parties which cannot be compelled to perform specific performances of contract are provided in which section of Specific Relief Act:
Options:
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 29
(D) 30
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 28 of the Specific Relief Act of 1963 deals with the rescission of contracts for the sale or lease of immovable property.
Q48. Which of the following sections of Cr.P.C. deals with the provisions relating to maximum period for which an under trial prisoner can be detained:
Options:
(A) 436
(B) 436A
(C) 437A
(D) 437
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 outlines the maximum period of detention for an undertrial prisoner.
Q49. The Right of Equality before the law under Article 14, is subject to the restriction of.
Options:
(A) Public order and morality
(B) Reasonable classification
(C) Reasonable restriction
(D) Reasonable situations
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Right to Equality before the law under Article 14, is subject to the restriction of reasonable classification.
Q50. Under Section 114, a person can apply for review of judgment when:
Options:
(A) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which an appeal is allowed, but no appeal is allowed.
(B) He is aggrieved by a decree/order from which no appeal is allowed.
(C) He is aggrieved by a decision on a reference from a court of small causes.
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 114 of CPC.
Q51. The Chairperson of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is appointed by the:
Options:
(A) Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(B) State Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court
(C) Central Government
(D) Central Government in consultation with Controller of Certifying Authority
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer Section 49 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Q52. In case of a co-operative society the maximum amount on which income-tax is not chargeable is:
Options:
(A) 50,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 20,000
(D) Nil
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Where the total income of the co-operative societies does not exceed Rs. 10,000/-, Rate of income-tax is 10%.
Q53. Pre-emption on the ground of Shafie-i-Jar was declared unconstitutional in:
Options:
(A) Bhau Ram v. Baij Nath
(B) Govind Dayal v. Inayatullah
(C) Bhagwan Dass v. Chetram
(D) Ram Saran Lall v. Mst. Domini Kuer
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer Bhau Ram v. Baij Nath, AIR 1962 (SC) 1476.
Q54. Which case is leading case on arrest:
Options:
(A) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
(B) State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu
(C) Both (A) and (b)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Joginder Kumar v. State of UP, 1994 SCC (4) 260 and State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu, AIR 1997 (SC) 610.
Q55. Filing with the court, to object owns or another’s imprisonment is called:
Options:
(A) Writ of Quo Warranto
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Prohibition
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Habeas Corpus is a writ for a person’s release from unlawful detention. When any person is arrested or detained, the validity of the detention may be tested by an application for habeas corpus.
Q56. Under which Supreme Court judgment, action of the President to summon, Prorogue and dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament, shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers—
Options:
(A) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain, AIR 1975 (SC) 2299
(B) Anandan v. Chief Secretary, AIR 1966 (SC)
(C) Rao v. Indira Gandhi, AIR 1971 (SC) 1002
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer U.N. R. Rao v. Smt. Indira Gandhi, AIR, 1971 (SC) 1002.
Q57. What is the Special Constitutional Position of Jammu and Kashmir?
Options:
(A) It is above Indian Constitution
(B) Indian laws are not applicable
(C) It has its own Constitution
(D) It is not of the integral parts of the Indian Union
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Jammu and Kashmir had a special constitutional status in India due to Article 370 of the Constitution of India. It had autonomy in its internal administration and its own Constitution.
Q58. To make the criminal harmless by supplying him those things which he lacks and to cure him of those drawbacks which made him to commit crime is known as
Options:
(A) Expiatory or penance theory of punishment
(B) Deterrent theory or preventive theory of punishment
(C) Reformative or rehabilitative or corrective theory of punishment
(D) Retributive theory of punishment
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In reformative theory, the purpose of punishment is to reform the offender as a person, so that he may become a normal law-abiding member of the community once again.
Q59. The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 was made clear by Melvill J. in:
Options:
(A) Reg v. Guruchand Gope
(B) Reg v. Govinda
(C) Reg v. Hayward
(D) Govind v. Reg
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Reg v Govinda case involved the defendant, Govinda, accused of committing culpable homicide by causing the death of his 15-year-old wife through physical assault. The court had to determine whether the act constituted murder or culpable homicide based on the intent and severity of the injury.
Q60. Which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is an exception”
Options:
(A) Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
(B) Moti Ram v. State of M.P.
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Moti Ram v. State of M.P., (1978) 4 SCC 47.
Q61. Which of the following heirs is not class I heir under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956:
Options:
(A) Son
(B) Widow
(C) Father
(D) Mother
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Schedule of Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Q62. According to Republic Act No. 6770, which of these powers is not provided to office of Ombudsman
Options:
(A) Prosecutory power
(B) Function to adopt, institute and implement, preventive measures
(C) Public assistant functions
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Section 15 of the Ombudsman Act, 1989.
Q63. Who is responsible for payment to a person employed by him in a factory under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
Options:
(A) Accounts manager
(B) HR manager
(C) Floor manager
(D) Owner
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the employer is responsible for paying the wages of all employees, including those in factories.
Q64. Natural guardian of an adopted son under the Hindu Minority & Guardianship Act, 1956 is:
Options:
(A) Original father
(B) In the absence of (A), original mother
(C) Adoptive father
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 7 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 says that the natural guardianship of an adopted son who is a minor passes, on adoption, to the adoptive father and after him to the adoptive mother.
Q65. The concept of “plea bargaining” is not applicable to the offence committed against:
Options:
(A) A woman
(B) A child
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Section 265A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with plea bargaining. Plea bargaining is available to an accused charged with an offence that is not punishable by death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for more than seven years. It is also available if the offence does not affect the country’s socio-economic condition or is not committed against a woman or child under 14 years of age.
Q66. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed:
Options:
(A) 13
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 25
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the appointment of Assistant Public Prosecutors (APPs).
Q67. In which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 the Law of Mitakshara has been incorporated:
Options:
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 6
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 6 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 provides for the Devolution of interest in coparcenary property.
Q68. Who are the parties in a bill of exchange
Options:
(A) Drawer and Drawee
(B) Payee
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
There are 3 parties involved in a payment by bill of exchange, namely: drawer, drawee and payee.
Q69. A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree at the hearing and upon the:
Options:
(A) Demand of the party
(B) Discretion of the Court
(C) Merit of the suit
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit. Refer Section 37(2) of SRA, 1963.
Q70. Under which section of CPC, option for settlement of dispute is provided outside the Court?
Options:
(A) 80(1)
(B) 89(2)
(C) 80(2)
(D) None
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 allows courts to refer disputes to alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanisms to settle them outside of court.
Q71. ‘A’ resides at Shimla, ‘B’ at Kolkata and ‘C’ at Delhi. A, B & C being together at Banaras. B & C make a joint promissory note, payable on demand and delivered to A. A may sue B & C
Options:
(A) At Banaras, where the cause of action arose
(B) At Kolkata where B resides
(C) At Delhi where C resides
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
This question is the Illustration (B) of Section 20 of CPC. Refer Section 20, CPC.
Q72. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that ‘misconduct envisages breach of discipline’-
Options:
(A) P.D. Gupta v. Ram Murti
(B) Noratanmal Chouraria v. M.R. Murli
(C) PJ Ratnam v. D. Kanikaram
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer case Noratanmal Chouraria v. M.R. Murli [2004 (SC) 283].
Q73. Which is the leading case on environment?
Options:
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(B) Union of India v. H.S. Dhillon
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
M.C. Mehta v. Union of India is the leading case on environment.
Q74. In the Government of India Act, 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list?
Options:
(A) Marriage
(B) Divorce & Arbitration
(C) Criminal Law & Procedure
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer List III, Schedule 7 of Government of India Act, 1935.
Q75. A contract of “Indemnity” under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 has been defined in Section:
Options:
(A) 124
(B) 123
(C) 125
(D) 126(a)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to section 124 of Indian Contract Act 1872, a contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the contract of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called a ‘contract of indemnity’.
Q76. Liability of drawer to compensate the drawee in case of dishonour is primarily provided under—
Options:
(A) Section 29 (a)
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 30
(D) Section 31
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The liability of a drawer to compensate the drawee in case of dishonour is primarily provided under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, Section 30.
Q77. Which of the following case is leading case in terms of ‘deliberate delay in filing of the suit’ resulting in huge losses to the complainant?
Options:
(A) Prof. Krishanraj Goswami v. Vishwanath D. Mukashikar
(B) Pratap Narayan v. Y. P. Raheja
(C) Babulal Jain v. Subhash Jain
(D) John D’souza v. Edward Ani
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer case Prof. Krishanraj Goswami v. Vishwanath D. Mukashikar, 2007 (6) Bom. CR 565.
Q78. In which of the following cases, it was said that “unless a right of appeal is clearly given by statute it does not exist”
Options:
(A) M/s. Ram Narayan Pvt. Ltd. v. Trading Corporation Ltd., AIR 1983 (SC) 786
(B) Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh v. Addl. Registrar, AIR 1962 (All.) 439
(C) Zair Hussain Khan v. Khurshed Jain, (1906) ILR 28 ALL 545
(D) Smt. Gangabai v. Vijaya Kumar, AIR 1974 (SC) 1126
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer case M/s. Ram Narayan Pvt. Ltd. v. Trading Corporation Ltd., AIR 1983 (SC) 786.
Q79. A reference can be made during the pendency:
Options:
(A) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of law.
(B) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of evidence
(C) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of fact
(D) The subordinate court refers the case to the High Court for the latter’s opinion on a question of court procedure.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer Section 113 and Rule 1 Order XLVI of CPC.
Q80. The theoretical powers to amend the Constitution, has been given to the Members of Parliament and State Legislatures by:
Options:
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 378
(D) No such powers
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Article 368 provides for the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure thereof.
Q81. Under Section 18 of the Indian Evidence Act, the admission of which of the following person is not admissible against the other.
Options:
(A) One of the plaintiffs
(B) One of the defendants
(C) Agents of the parties
(D) Statement of the third party
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
As per Section 18 of Evidence Act, 1872, Statements made by a party to the proceeding, or by an agent to any such party, whom the Court regards, under the circumstances of the case, as expressly or impliedly authorized by him to make them, are admissions.
Q82. A sells a field to B. There is a right of way over the field of which A has direct personal knowledge but which he conceals from B.
Options:
(A) B has the right to rescind the contract
(B) B cannot rescind the contract
(C) A has the right to rescind the contract
(D) A is not legally liable
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
This Question is the Illustration (A) of Section 35 of Specific Relief Act, 1877.
Q83. This section was enacted to meet the cases of dowry deaths. It is:
Options:
(A) Section 366A of IPC
(B) Section 477A of IPC
(C) Section 498A of IPC
(D) Section 489A of IPC
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 498A, IPC provides for the Husband or relative of husband of a woman subjecting her to cruelty.
Q84. What is the maximum number of witness which can be produced in a case?
Options:
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) No limit
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 134 of Evidence Act says that No particular number of witnesses shall in any case be required for the proof of any fact.
Q85. Under Order 33, an indigent is allowed to prosecute any suit, provided he satisfied certain conditions. Which of the following is not such a condition?
Options:
(A) He is not possessed of sufficient means to enable him to pay the fees prescribed for the plaint in such suit
(B) He is not entitled to property worth Rs. 1000
(C) He has no sufficient means for his livelihood
(D) He may present the application for permission to sue as an indigent either himself or through an authorized agent
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Order 33 Rule 1 of CPC.
Q86. A decree can be transferred for execution to another court:
Options:
(A) If the judgment debtor actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, within the local limits of jurisdiction of such court.
(B) If the judgment debtor has property sufficient to satisfy the decree within the limits of that court.
(C) If the decree directs the sale of delivery of immovable property situated outside the local limits of jurisdiction of the court which passed it.
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The decree-holder can apply to the court that passed the decree to send it for execution to another court. The court passes the decree. The court that receives the decree must have jurisdiction to try the suit in which the decree was passed.
Q87. Motor Vehicles Act, 1939, came into force in:
Options:
(A) 1939
(B) 1940
(C) 1941
(D) 1942
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Motor Vehicles Act, 1939 came into force on 1st July, 1939.
Q88. Recently, in which case the Kerala High Court held that a University Grant Commission criterion which allowed certain relaxation in marks to reserved categories as violation of Article 16(1) of the Constitution:
Options:
(A) Nair Service Society v. UGC, WP(C) No 5190 of 2016(W)
(B) CBSE v. UGC, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W)
(C) UGC v. State Of Kerala, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W).
(D) UGC v. Secretary of State, WP(C) No. 5190 of 2016(W)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Refer case Nair Service Society v. UGC, WP (C) No. 5190 of 2016(W).
Q89. Which of the following sections enables the Court to cancel the bond and bail bond?
Options:
(A) 446-A
(B) 446
(C) 448
(D) 450
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 446A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) allows the court to cancel a bond and bail bond.
Q90. Which of the following belong to the category of direct tax?
Options:
(A) Goods and Services Tax
(B) Excise duty and Custom duty
(C) Income Tax and Gift Tax
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Direct tax is a tax which is levied on the income or profits of the person who pays it, rather than on goods or services. E.g.: Income Tax, Corporate Tax, Wealth Tax, Gift Tax etc.
Q91. When a bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the same?
Options:
(A) Bill approved
(B) Law
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedures
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
When a bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament and the President gives his assent, it becomes an Act of Parliament and law.
Q92. The maxim-“audi alteram partem” denotes:
Options:
(A) No one shall be judge of his own cause
(B) No one shall be condemned unheard
(C) Rights are better than duties
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Audi alteram partem means ‘hear the other side’, or ‘no man should be condemned unheared’ or ‘both the sides must be heard before passing any order’.
Q93. Which of the following Section deals with search warrant:
Options:
(A) 93
(B) 94
(C) 95
(D) 96
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 93, Cr.P.C. provides for ‘When search-warrant may be issued’.
Q94. A contract can be specifically enforced:
Options:
(A) Where compensation is adequate relief for the non-performance of the contract
(B) Where the contract by its nature is determinable
(C) Where it involves the performance of continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 10 Specific Relief Act, 1983 provides for the cases in which specific performance of contract enforceable.
Q95. Which condition is not required to be satisfied by an invention to be patentable subject-matter under Patent Act?
Options:
(A) Novelty
(B) Inventive steps
(C) Distinctiveness
(D) Usefulness
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
An invention in order to be patented should fulfill the following three conditions: (a) Novelty, (b) Inventive step, (c) Usefulness.
Q96. Which writ is issued by the court to quash the wrongful order of a lower court?
Options:
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Prohibition
(D) Certiorari
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A writ of certiorari is a legal document that allows a higher court to review a case that has already been heard in a lower court.
Q97. A person cannot be a next friend, a guardian of a person if:
Options:
(A) He is a minor
(B) He is an opposite party in the suit
(C) He has not given consent in writing
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Order XXXII Rule 4(1), CPC.
Q98. Pakala Narayan Swami v. Emperor is a leading case on:
Options:
(A) Dying Declaration
(B) Confession
(C) Accomplice
(D) Expert witness
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor is a landmark case in Indian criminal law that is known for its interpretation of the concept of confession and its admissibility as evidence.
Q99. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the Disciplinary Committee of the Bar Council of India under section 36 or 37 of the Advocates Act, may prefer an appeal to the:
Options:
(A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) State Government
(D) Central Government
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Section 38 Advocates Act, 1961. Section 38 of the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with appeals to the Supreme Court in relation to disciplinary committee orders and professional misconduct.
Q100. The provisions relating to compoundable offence is provided under Section……..of Cr.P.C.
Options:
(A) 319
(B) 320
(C) 265(d)
(D) 321
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 320, Cr.P.C. deals with the Compounding of offences. Section 320 of the CrPC allows for the compounding of offences through a compromise between the victim and the accused
