Q1. The Criminal Procedure Code ensures that
Options:
(A) Principle of separation of powers of each limb of the State is not breached
(B) Principle of combined of powers of each limb of the State is not breached
(C) (A) and (B)
(D) Principle of separation of powers of each limb of the State is breached
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India does not ensure that the principle of separation of powers of each limb of the State is not breached. The CrPC is a combination of substantive and procedural law.
Q2. Section 6 of the Cr.P.C. defines?
Options:
(A) Classes of Criminal Courts
(B) Classes of District Courts
(C) Classes of Municipal Courts
(D) Classes of Civil Courts
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 6 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.) defines the classes of criminal courts in India, excluding the High Courts and those established under any law other than the Cr.P.C. These include: Courts of Session, Judicial Magistrate of the first class, Metropolitan Magistrate in any metropolitan area, Judicial Magistrate of the second class, and Executive Magistrates.
Q3. When an offence is bailable:
Options:
(A) A person has no right to be released on bail upon arrest
(B) A person has a right to be released on bail upon arrest
(C) A right to be released is dependent on the exercise of judicial discretion
(D) A person shall be released within 24 hours
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An offense is considered bailable when it’s not very serious and the accused can be released on bail if they meet certain conditions.
Q4. As per section 273 of Cr. P.C., how an evidence is to be taken?
Options:
(A) In the presence of accused
(B) When personal attendance of the accused is dispensed with, in the presence of his pleader
(C) In presence of police
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to section 273 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr. P.C.), evidence must be taken in the presence of the accused or their pleader, unless otherwise stated. The accused is defined as anyone in relation to whom a proceeding under Chapter VIII of the Cr. P.C. has been started.
Q5. If a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, the High Court shall Order the execution of the sentence
Options:
(A) To be postponed
(B) If thinks fit commute the sentence to imprisonment for life
(C) Sent for medical assistance
(D) Non-judicial mandate of powers
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
No, the High Court shall not order the execution of the sentence if a woman sentenced to death is found to be pregnant.
Q6. Under which section of the Cr. P.C., the procedure when investigation cannot be completed within twenty-four hours has been described?
Options:
(A) Sec. 165
(B) Sec. 167
(C) Sec. 166
(D) Sec. 164
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The procedure when an investigation cannot be completed within 24 hours is described in Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr. P.C.).
Q7. What is provided by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
Options:
(A) The Code provides the procedure for the implementation of the criminal justice system
(B) It provides the mechanism for the investigation into trial of offences
(C) The Code provides the procedure for the implementation of the civil justice system
(D) (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 is a law that governs the process of criminal trials in India. It provides the machinery for investigation and trial, and also protects the rights of the accused and victims.
Q8. As per section 2(C) a cognizable offence is
Options:
(A) Where a police officer may arrest without warrant
(B) Where a police officer may not arrest without warrant
(C) Where a police officer may arrest with permission of a court
(D) Any person in the public can arrest
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A cognizable offense is an offense for which a police officer can arrest someone without a warrant or prior permission of the court. This is defined in Section 2(C) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Q9. Section 110 of the Cr. P.C. refers to
Options:
(A) Seizure
(B) Search
(C) Summons
(D) Search-warrants
Correct Answer: (xx)
Explanation:
Security for good behaviour of habitual offenders under Section 110 of CrPC. This Section is concerned with keeping habitual criminals under control when there is a possibility of repetition. It intends to incapacitate ex-convicts or habitual criminals who are dangerous and who are incorrigible.
Q10. Is there any maximum period for which an under-trial can be detained under Section 436A of the Cr. P.C.
Options:
(A) Yes, half of the Maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence
(B) No period is prescribed
(C) Court can decide
(D) Maximum 90 days
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) limits the maximum period an undertrial can be detained to half of the maximum imprisonment period for the offense.
Q11. Presumption of law is
Options:
(A) Discretionary and rebuttable
(B) Mandatory and rebuttable
(C) Mandatory and irrebuttable
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
No, presumption of law is not discretionary and rebuttable, but rather mandatory and rebuttable.
Q12. In Selvi’s case, the Supreme Court of India examined the constitutionality of tests like Narco Analysis, Polygraph and Brain Mapping on the touchstones of
Options:
(A) Art. 20(3) and Art. 21
(B) Art. 21 and Art. 23(2)
(C) Art. 23 and Art. 21
(D) Art. 20(2) and Art. 20(1)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Court ruled that the use of such neuroscientific investigative techniques constituted testimonial compulsion and violated an accused person’s right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3), and their right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Q13. According to the Law Commission of India 69th Report, Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is based on the
Options:
(A) Doctrine of introspection
(B) Doctrine or testimonial incrimination
(C) Doctrine of confirmation
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to the 69th Report of the Law Commission of India, Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is based on the theory of confirmation by discovery of subsequent facts.
Q14. Section 99 of the Indian Evidence Act says persons who are not parties to a document or their representatives in interest may give evidence of any facts tending to show a contemporaneous agreement varying the terms of the document. This is based on the principle
Options:
(A) Pacta tertii nec nocent nec prosunt
(B) Pacta sunt servanda
(C) Actio personalis meritur cum persona
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The principle that Section 99 of the Indian Evidence Act is based on is pacta tertii nec nocent nec prosunt, which is a Latin phrase that means a treaty only binds the parties that consent to it.
Q15. Burden of proving that person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years is on whom
Options:
(A) One who denies it
(B) One who affirms it
(C) Any third person/stranger
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The burden of proving that a person is alive who has not been heard of for seven years is on the person who affirms it. This is according to Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q16. The Court’s discretion to permit leading questions is confined only to matters which are
Options:
(A) Introductory facts
(B) Undisputed facts
(C) Facts already sufficiently proved to the satisfaction of the court
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A court can permit leading questions when the matter is introductory or undisputed, when the court believes the matter has been sufficiently proved, and when the adverse party does not object.
Q17. The question is whether A murdered B. Marks on the ground produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed, are relevant facts under
Options:
(A) S. 7
(B) S. 6
(C) S. 8
(D) S. 11
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that facts are relevant if they are: the cause, occasion, or effect of relevant facts; part of the state of things that led to relevant facts; or an opportunity for relevant facts to occur.
Q18. Section 93 of the Indian Evidence Act treats the patent ambiguity as
Options:
(A) Curable
(B) Incurable
(C) Proper
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 93 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 states that when a document is ambiguous or defective on its face, evidence cannot be given to show its meaning or supply its defects. This is known as treating patent ambiguity as incurable.
Q19. A promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other is known as
Options:
(A) Proposal
(B) Consideration
(C) Agreement
(D) Contract
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A promise or set of promises that form consideration for each other is called an agreement. An agreement is a mutually approved arrangement.
Q20. A past consideration under Indian Law
Options:
(A) Invalid
(B) Valid
(C) Void
(D) Voidable
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A past consideration is valid under Indian law, as long as the parties have agreed that it should be considered valid.
Q21. Caveat emptor means
Options:
(A) Purchaser beware
(B) Seller beware
(C) Things outside commerce
(D) A warning letter
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The phrase ‘caveat emptor’ is Latin for ‘let the buyer beware.’ Caveat emptor principles are generally still followed today; however, they are subject to exceptions.
Q22. Consensus ad idem means
Options:
(A) Good faith
(B) Opinion of third parties
(C) Opinion of the offeree
(D) Meeting of the minds
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Consensus ad idem is a Latin term that means ‘agreement to the same thing’ or ‘meeting of the minds’. In contract law, it refers to the principle that both parties must have a clear understanding of the terms and subject-matter of the agreement for a contract to be legally binding.
Q23. Agreement in restraint of marriage is
Options:
(A) Contingent contract
(B) Wager
(C) Void
(D) Valid
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
An agreement in restraint of marriage is an agreement that prevents someone from marrying, and is void.
Q24. A tells B, the shopkeeper, “Give Z the Goods, I will see you paid” this contract is
Options:
(A) Bailment
(B) Agency
(C) Guarantee
(D) Indemnity
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Indemnity is a contractual agreement where one party promises to compensate another party for losses or damages.
Q25. A contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default is a contract of
Options:
(A) Guarantee
(B) Default
(C) Indemnity
(D) Partnership
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A ‘contract of guarantee’ is a contract to perform the promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default.
Q26. “He who does an act through another, does it himself” is a contract of
Options:
(A) Sale
(B) Purchase
(C) Agency
(D) Partnership
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The phrase ‘he who does an act through another, does it himself’ is a principle of law known as the maxim qui facit per alium facit per se, which means that a person is legally considered to have done an act themselves if they have someone else performed it. This principle is part of the doctrine of vicarious liability.
Q27. When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing something or does or abstains from doing something or promises to do or abstain from doing something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a
Options:
(A) Proposal
(B) Consideration
(C) Acceptance
(D) Agreement
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
When at the desire of the promisor, the promisee has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or abstain from doing something, such an act or abstinence or promise is called consideration for the promise.
Q28. X owes Y Rs. 20,000 but this debt is barred by Limitation Act. X executes a written promise to pay B Rs. 15,000 on account of debt. This is
Options:
(A) Invalid
(B) Void
(C) Valid
(D) Voidable
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A contract is valid if it meets certain requirements and is legally enforceable, including mutual agreement, competent parties, and legal purpose.
Q29. When a negotiable instrument is delivered conditionally or for a special purpose as a collateral security or for safe custody only, and not for the purpose of transferring absolutely property therein, it is called
Options:
(A) Fictitious Bill
(B) Inchoate instrument
(C) Escrow
(D) Clean Bill
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
When a negotiable instrument is delivered conditionally or for a special purpose as a collateral security or for safe custody only, and not for the purpose of transferring absolutely property therein, it is called an escrow instrument.
Q30. Which one of the following is a promissory note when A signs the instrument?
Options:
(A) I promise to pay B or order Rs. 10,000/- on demand
(B) Mr. BI. I Owe. You Rs. 10,000/-
(C) I promise to pay B Rs. 10,000/- and such other sum which shall be due to him
(D) I promise to pay B on his request Rs. 10,000/- on the death of X
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
When A signs the instrument ‘I promise to pay B or order Rs. 500,’ it is a promissory note. A promissory note is a legal document where one party promises to pay another a specific amount of money on a certain date or on demand.
Q31. Transfer of Property Act applies to transfers
Options:
(A) By partition in a joint family
(B) Inter vivos
(C) Both between animate and inanimate objects
(D) Between living and non-living persons
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Transfer of Property Act of 1882 applies to transfers inter vivos, or transfers that happen between living people.
Q32. A transfers property of which he is the owner to B in trust for A and is intended wife successively for their lives, and, after the death of the survivor, for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for A’s second son. The interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son
Options:
(A) Does not take effect
(B) Takes effect
(C) Partially takes effect
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The interest created for the benefit of the eldest son in the scenario does not take effect because it does not extend to the whole of A’s remaining interest in the property. This is according to Section 13 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
Q33. A transfer of an interest in specific immoveable property for the purpose of securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced by way of loan, an existing or future debt, or the performance of an engagement which may give rise to a pecuniary liability is called
Options:
(A) Sale
(B) Gift
(C) Mortgage
(D) Lease
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A transfer of an interest in specific immovable property to secure the payment of money, debt, or performance of an engagement is called a mortgage. The person transferring the interest is called the mortgagor, and the person receiving it is called the mortgagee.
Q34. A lease of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year reserving a yearly rent, can be made only by
Options:
(A) Oral agreement
(B) Written agreement
(C) Partition
(D) Registered instrument
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A lease of immovable property from year to year, or for term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent, can be made only by a registered instrument. All other leases of immovable property may be made either by a registered instrument or by lessee agreement accompanied by delivery of possession.
Q35. Specific performance of contract can be ordered, at discretion of Court
Options:
(A) When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for non-performance will not give sufficient relief
(B) When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for non-performance will give sufficient relief
(C) Contract, performance of which involves a continuous duty, which Court cannot supervise
(D) Specific performance of contract of personal nature cannot be ordered
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The court can order specific performance of a contract at its discretion. The court’s discretion is not arbitrary, but is guided by judicial principles and can be corrected by a court of appeal.
Q36. Under Section 9 of Specific Relief Act, the person against whom the relief is claimed may plead by way of defense any ground which is available to him
Options:
(A) Under law of torts
(B) Under any law relating to contracts
(C) Under IPC
(D) Under Cr. P.C.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the person against whom a relief is claimed can use any legal grounds to defend themselves in a contract dispute.
Q37. The following contract cannot be specifically enforced
Options:
(A) A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court cannot supervise
(B) A contract the performance of which involves the performance of a continuous duty which the court can supervise
(C) A Tort the discharge of which involves the performance of a continuous obligation
(D) A contract for the non-performance of which compensation is not adequate relief
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A contract cannot be specifically enforced if it involves adequate compensation, personal qualifications, too detailed terms, or a continuous duty that the court cannot supervise.
Q38. A sells a TV to a minor, who pays for it by means of a cheque. A indorses that cheque to X. X takes it in good faith and for value. This Cheque was dishonoured on presentation. X can enforce payment of the cheque
Options:
(A) Against Minor
(B) Against Minor and A
(C) Against A Only
(D) Cannot enforce against any body
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A dishonored cheque is a cheque that a bank refuses to pay. X can enforce payment of the cheque only against A, since the minor cannot be held liable.
Q39. Who has the authority to prescribed qualifications and disqualification for membership of a Bar Council?
Options:
(A) State Bar Councils
(B) Bar Council of India
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Supreme Court Bar Association
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Section 49A of the Advocates Act, 1961 — The Central Government can make rules for carrying out the purposes of the Act, including rules for qualifications and disqualifications for membership of a Bar Council.
Q40. Indian Council for Legal Aid and Advise v. BCI case deals with the issue of
Options:
(A) Prescribing pre-enrolment training for advocates
(B) Prescribing minimum qualification for an advocate
(C) Prescribing uniform attire for the advocates appearing in the court of law
(D) Prescribing age bar on enrollment of advocates
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advice v. Bar Council of India case dealt with the issue of the age limit for enrolling as an advocate.
Q41. For transfer of roll from one State to another, an application is made to the
Options:
(A) Bar Council of India
(B) State Bar council where one is enrolled
(C) State Bar Council where one seeks transfer
(D) High Court of the State where one is enrolled
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
To transfer a name from one State bar council roll to another, an application is made to the Bar Council of India.
Q42. Which of the following committees cannot be constituted by State Bar Council
Options:
(A) Special Committee
(B) Disciplinary Committee
(C) Legal Aid Committee
(D) Legal Education Committee
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Bar Council of India (BCI) is responsible for legal education in India, including forming an Accreditation Committee that rates the quality of law teaching institutions. The BCI also inspects law colleges and grants approval to new law colleges.
Q43. In which year by an amendment of the Code of Civil Procedure Sec. 89 has been included in the Code, which gives importance to mediation, conciliation and arbitration
Options:
(A) 2002
(B) 2004
(C) 2013
(D) 2012
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) was inserted in 1999 by the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, and became effective on July 1, 2002. The section provides for settling disputes outside of court and gives importance to mediation, conciliation, and arbitration.
Q44. Under THE ARBITRATION AND CONCILIATION ACT an arbitration agreement may be in the form of
Options:
(A) an arbitration clause in a contract only
(B) in the form of a separate agreement only
(C) an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a separate agreement
(D) commercial custom
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitration agreement can be in the form of a separate agreement or an arbitration clause in a contract.
Q45. A decision by the arbitral tribunal that the contract is null and void shall
Options:
(A) Entail ipso jure the invalidity of the arbitration clause
(B) Not entail ipso jure the invalidity of the arbitration clause
(C) Entail de facto invalidity of the arbitration clause
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 16 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 allows parties to challenge the jurisdiction of an arbitrator. The arbitral tribunal can rule on its own jurisdiction, including objections to the arbitration agreement’s existence or validity.
Q46. The arbitral tribunal shall not be bound by the
Options:
(A) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to Section 19 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitral tribunal is not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q47. Claim made by the defendant in a suit against the plaintiff
Options:
(A) Cross claim
(B) Cross suit
(C) Counter claim
(D) Cross decree
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A counter-claim is really a suit, though the same is taken in the written statement. It is an independent cause of action which could also be agitated in a separate suit.
Q48. Inter pleader suit is dealt with in which of the following sections of C. P.C.?
Options:
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 89
(D) Section 90
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Interpleader suits are covered in Section 88 and Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Q49. As required by S.80, C.P.C. the suit can be instituted after the expiry of ——— of notice
Options:
(A) 1 month
(B) 2 months
(C) 60 days
(D) 30 days
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
As required by Section 80 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), a suit can be instituted after the expiration of two months of notice being sent to the government or public official.
Q50. Under Section 2(2) of C.P.C., Rejection of a plaint is
Options:
(A) Decree
(B) Deemed decree
(C) Cross decree
(D) Cross appeal
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), the rejection of a plaint is considered a deemed decree that ends the suit.
Q51. Ratilal v. State of Bombay is a popular case on the point of
Options:
(A) Res judicata
(B) Res sub-judice
(C) Restitution
(D) Doctrine of Cy-pres
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The case of Ratilal Panachand Gandhi v. State of Bombay is a popular case on the constitutionality of the Bombay Public Trusts Act, 1950, dealing with the Doctrine of Cy-pres. The cy-pres doctrine allows a court to modify a legal document to achieve the original intent when it becomes impossible or illegal to enforce it under its original terms.
Q52. Pick out the case u/s 58 (1-A), in which arrest or detention in civil prison is not maintainable
Options:
(A) A judgment debtor, where decretal amount does not exceed Rs. 5,000/-
(B) A judgment debtor where decretal amount does not exceed Rs. 2,500/-
(C) A judgment debtor where decretal amount does not exceed Rs 2000/-
(D) A judgment debtor where decretal amount does not exceed Rs. 1,000/-
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Under Section 58(1-A) of the India Code, a judgment-debtor cannot be detained in civil prison to pay a decree if the total amount of the decree is less than two thousand rupees.
Q53. A precept seeks to ——— of the judgment debtor
Options:
(A) Attach the property
(B) Prevent alienation of property
(C) Prevent attachment and alienation
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A precept seeks to attach the property of a judgment debtor.
Q54. Rule 90 of Order 21 deals with
Options:
(A) Pre-sale illegalities committed in the execution
(B) Post-sale irregularities causing substantial injury to judgment debtor
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Order 21, Rule 90 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) allows a person to challenge the sale of a property if their interests are affected by the sale.
Q55. The place of suit a suit for partition will be
Options:
(A) Court within whose jurisdiction the person is residing
(B) Court within whose jurisdiction the elder person of the family resides
(C) Court within whose jurisdiction the entire property of the family is situated
(D) Court within whose jurisdiction the immovable property is situated
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 16(b) of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that, subject to the pecuniary or other limitations prescribed by any law, suits for the partition of immovable property shall be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the property is situate.
Q56. Appeal against a decree or order can be filed in a High Court within
Options:
(A) 60 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 91 days
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In India, a civil appeal against a decree or order passed by a lower court can be filed in the High Court within 90 days from the date of the decree or order. The Limitation Act, 1963 provides for these time limits.
Q57. Where, the expiration of the prescribed period for a suit or application in respect of any property or right, an acknowledgment of liability in respect of such property or right has been made in writing signed by the party against whom such property or right is claimed, or by any person through whom he derives his title or liability
Options:
(A) A fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time when the acknowledgement was so signed
(B) Limitation shall be computed from the time when originally the signature has been given
(C) A fresh period of limitation shall not be computed from the time when the acknowledgement was so signed
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court has held that when no limitation period has been prescribed for filing an appeal, then such appeal must be filed within a reasonable time, which is to be determined as per facts and circumstances of each case.
Q58. The period of limitation for an action by a principal against his agent for movable property received by the latter and not accounted for it
Options:
(A) 12 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) No limitation
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The time limit for a principal to take action against an agent for movable property that was received but not accounted for is three years.
Q59. Which of following is a ground recognized under the Companies Act for automatic adjournment of the General Meeting
Options:
(A) Absence of Chairman of the meeting
(B) Quorum of the meeting is not present
(C) Meeting is held at a place different from what was prescribed in the notice
(D) Death of any of the directors prior to the meeting
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Under the Companies Act, 2013, a general meeting can be automatically adjourned if the quorum is not present within 30 minutes of the scheduled start time.
Q60. Which of the following meetings can be called by members
Options:
(A) Extra-ordinary General Meeting
(B) Annual General Meeting
(C) Statutory meeting
(D) Special meeting
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Company members can call an Extraordinary General Meeting (EGM) if they meet certain requirements.
Q61. Which of the following powers can be exercised by the Board of Directors without holding a meeting
Options:
(A) Power to issue debentures
(B) Power to invest funds of the company
(C) Power to make loans
(D) Power to appoint of additional director
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Board of Directors can exercise some powers without holding a meeting, such as appointing or removing key managerial personnel (KMP), taking note of appointments or removals one level below KMP, appointing internal auditors and secretarial auditors, etc.
Q62. Which of following is to a ground for compulsory winding up of a company
Options:
(A) Oppression of minority
(B) Loss of substratum
(C) Non-holding of annual general meeting
(D) Losses to the company
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A company may be compulsorily wound up for reasons including unpaid debts, special resolution, illegal activities, and fraud and misconduct.
Q63. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear of death or grievous hurt in order to commit extortion is dealt with under
Options:
(A) Section 385, IPC
(B) Sections 386, IPC
(C) Section 387, IPC
(D) Section 388, IPC
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Section 387 deals with the act of putting a person in fear of death or grievous hurt to commit extortion.
Q64. F invited C to have a fix of his heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected each other several times one night. Next morning F died on the question of causation:
Options:
(A) C must be convicted of manslaughter
(B) C must not be convicted of manslaughter
(C) C can be convicted for the possession of heroin only
(D) C is neither guilty of possessing heron nor the death of F
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Manslaughter is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), but culpable homicide not amounting to murder is similar.
Q65. Literally, mens rea means
Options:
(A) Guilty mind
(B) Guilty or a wrongful purpose
(C) Criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and willfulness
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Latin term mens rea literally translates to ‘guilty mind’. It is a legal term that refers to the mental state of a person when they commit a crime, and is a standard in criminal law.
Q66. In which of the following cases mens rea is not an essential ingredient for offences under:
Options:
(A) Revenue Acts
(B) Public Nuisance
(C) Criminal cases which are in summary mode
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
In the cases of revenue acts, public nuisance, and criminal cases dealt with in summary mode, mens rea is not an essential ingredient for establishing guilt.
Q67. Actus non facit return, nisi mens sit rea means?
Options:
(A) A deed, a material result of human conduct
(B) The intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime
(C) Putting to death
(D) Un commended manner
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Latin phrase actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea means ‘an act does not make a person guilty unless their mind is also guilty’. It is a common law maxim that defines mens rea and is a general test of guilt.
Q68. Cheating and thereby dishonesty including delivery of property, or the making alteration or destruction of a valuable security is dealt with under
Options:
(A) Section 417, IPC
(B) Section 418, IPC
(C) Section 419, IPC
(D) Section 420, IPC
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Cheating and dishonesty that involves the delivery of property or the destruction of a valuable security is dealt with under Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Q69. Etymologically what is meant by Jurisprudence?
Options:
(A) Knowledge of law
(B) Science of law
(C) Science of origin
(D) Knowledge of origin
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Jurisprudence etymologically means the science or knowledge of law.
Q70. What is meant by the term ‘General Law’?
Options:
(A) It consists of general ordinary law of the land
(B) It consists of those legal rules which are taken judicial notice of by the court
(C) It consists of those bodies and legal rules which are exceptional in nature
(D) (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
General law refers to a law that applies to all people or political sub-divisions in a region or State, and is not limited by time.
Q71. According to the theory of ‘social utilitarianism’ as propounded by inhering:
Options:
(A) greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure
(B) the essential body of legal rules is always based upon the social ‘facts’ of law
(C) a balance is to be struck between the competing interests in society
(D) law is a means to social ends
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Rudolf von Jhering’s theory of ‘social utilitarianism’, the State can control the social activities of individuals through coercion, reward, and duty to achieve social welfare.
Q72. A is the mother of B. She becomes a widow and re-maries. B dies. Can A succeed to him as mother? (both are Hindus)
Options:
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Depends on their School
(D) Only when B has no son
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 lays down a uniform and comprehensive system of inheritance and succession. A can succeed to B as mother.
Q73. Referring to Section 6 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act the Supreme Court observed that the words ‘after him’ does not mean ‘after the life time of the father’. Indeed it means ‘in the absence of’. If the father is non-functional as guardian for various reasons like indifference, physical or mental incapacity, away from the place where the child lives with the mother, by mutual understanding, it may be treated as the ‘absence’ of the father. In which case
Options:
(A) Lily Thomas case
(B) Sarla Mudgal case
(C) Githa Hariharan case
(D) Goverdhan Lal case
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Emphasizing the paramount importance of the child’s welfare, the Court ruled that the mother can act as the natural guardian in cases. The Court dismissed the petition and instructed the Reserve Bank of India to develop appropriate procedures in line with its findings.
Q74. By a recent amendment the daughter of a coparcener by birth becomes a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as the son- Which Amendment?
Options:
(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006
(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2012
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 (39 of 2005) was enacted to remove gender discriminatory provisions in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. Under the amendment, the daughter of a coparcener shall by birth become a coparcener in her own right in the same manner as the son.
Q75. Shamin Ara v State of U.P. relates to
Options:
(A) The condition precedent for a Muslim husband for rendering divorce is the pronouncement of divorce which has to be proved on evidence
(B) Option of puberty
(C) Guardianship in Marriage
(D) Dower
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
At the centre of the case is Shamim Ara, a Muslim woman whose marital status was altered when her husband pronounced ‘Talaq, Talaq, Talaq,’ signifying an instantaneous divorce. But Shamim Ara contested the validity of this divorce, arguing that it did not adhere to the proper Islamic procedures.
Q76. The provision under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 which guarantees the rights of workmen laid-off to claim for compensation
Options:
(A) Section 25-C
(B) Section 26
(C) Section 25-O
(D) Section 25-A
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, Section 25C guarantees the right of laid-off workmen to claim compensation.
Q77. The number of persons required to form trade union
Options:
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A minimum of seven members are required to form a trade union in India.
Q78. The temporary closing of the work place or suspension of the work at work place by the employer is known as
Options:
(A) Lay off
(B) Lock out
(C) Retrenchment
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The temporary closure of a workplace or suspension of work by an employer is called a lockout. It is defined in Section 2(l) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Q79. Which of the following Acts has a direct relevance for grievances handling practices?
Options:
(A) The Industrial Disputes Act
(B) Factories Act
(C) The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 and the Industrial Disputes Amendment Act of 1982 are both relevant to grievance handling practices.
Q80. Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act refers to
Options:
(A) Voluntary reference of disputes to arbitration
(B) Definition of Workman
(C) Definition of industry
(D) Appeals
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 10A of the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 allows for the voluntary reference of an industrial dispute to arbitration.
Q81. ‘Wages’ under Workmen’s Compensation Act
Options:
(A) Includes any privileges or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money
(B) Does not include any privilege or benefit which is capable of being estimated in money
(C) Includes any privilege or benefit which is not capable of being estimated in money
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Workmen’s Compensation Act of 1923 defines wages as any benefit or privilege that can be valued in monetary terms, with some exceptions.
Q82. Writ of Certiorari is issued against
Options:
(A) Lower courts or quasi-judicial bodies
(B) Public Officials
(C) Wrongful confinement
(D) Usurpation of public office
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A writ of certiorari is issued by a higher court against a lower court, tribunal, or administrative body when the higher court believes that the lower court or administrative body has made an error or exceeded its authority.
Q83. Audi Alteram Partem – means
Options:
(A) Bias
(B) Hear the other side
(C) No one can be a judge in his own case
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Audi alteram partem is a Latin phrase that means ‘listen to the other side’ or ‘let the other side be heard as well’. It is a fundamental legal principle that states that no person should be judged without a fair hearing.
Q84. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission is constituted
Options:
(A) 31st August 2004
(B) 31st August 2006
(C) 31st August 2005
(D) 31st August 2007
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (AR(C)) was constituted on August 31, 2005, under the chairmanship of Veerappa Moily.
Q85. The type of damages awarded in the law of torts
Options:
(A) Liquidated Damages
(B) Unliquidated damages
(C) Penal damages
(D) Exemplary damages
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
In the law of torts, the types of damages that may be awarded are: nominal damages, compensatory damages, aggravated damages, and punitive damages.
Q86. Ashby v White is an example of
Options:
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Uberremifide
(C) Injuria since damnum
(D) Usufruct
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Ashby v White is a landmark case in UK constitutional law and English tort law that is an example of the principle of injuria sine damno or ‘injury without damage’.
Q87. The Supreme Court of India invoked the principle of absolute liability on an enterprise carrying on business with hazardous and inherently dangerous and toxic chemicals in
Options:
(A) Ganga Pollution case
(B) Fletcher case
(C) Sri Ram Fetilizers case
(D) Prabhu Dayal case
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Shriram Fertilizer case, also known as M.C. Mehta v. Union of India or the Oleum Gas Leak Case, was a landmark environmental law case in India that led to the establishment of the principle of ‘absolute liability’ in India.
Q88. Res ipsa loquitor – means
Options:
(A) Things speak for themselves
(B) Tithes imperiled
(C) Vicarious liability
(D) Dangerous animals
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means ‘the thing speaks for itself’. It is a legal principle in tort law that allows plaintiffs to establish a presumption of negligence through circumstantial evidence.
Q89. A motor cycle with engine capacity not exceeding 50cc may be driven in a public place by a person
Options:
(A) after attaining the age of sixteen years
(B) after attaining the age of eighteen years
(C) after attaining the age of fifteen years
(D) after attaining the age of twenty-one years
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A person can drive a motorcycle with an engine capacity of 50cc or less in a public place if they are at least 16 years old.
Q90. According to Consumer Protection Act, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction over complaints where the value of the goods or services and compensation, if any claimed exceeds rupees
Options:
(A) 2 lakhs
(B) 10 lakhs
(C) 20 lakhs
(D) 50 lakhs
Correct Answer: (XX)
Explanation:
According to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Commission has jurisdiction over complaints where the value of the goods or services is more than two crore rupees.
Q91. New States are created under
Options:
(A) Art. 3 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Art. 4 of the Indian Constitution
(C) Art. 5 of the Indian Constitution
(D) Art. 370 of the Indian Constitution
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
New States are created in India under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, which gives the Parliament the power to form, increase, decrease, alter boundaries, and alter the name of a State.
Q92. Doctrine in pleasure with reference to civil servants is mentioned under
Options:
(A) Art. 311 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Art. 308 of the Indian Constitution
(C) Art. 301 of the Indian Constitution
(D) Art. 310 of the Indian Constitution
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Doctrine of Pleasure is mentioned in Article 310 of the Constitution of India.
Q93. Right to know flows from one of these Articles of the Constitution
Options:
(A) Art. 15
(B) Art. 19
(C) Art. 20
(D) Art. 23
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The right to know, or the right to information (RTI), is a fundamental right in the Constitution of India that flows from Article 19(1).
Q94. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India – is mentioned under
Options:
(A) Art. 19(1) (g)
(B) Art. 300A
(C) Art. 301
(D) Art. 299
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout India is mentioned in Article 301 of the Constitution of India.
Q95. Passive euthanasia under certain circumstances is permissible – held in the case of
Options:
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs. Union of India
(B) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab
(C) State of Maharashtra Vs Maruty Sripaty Dubal
(D) P. Rathinam Vs Union of India
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India ruled in the 2011 case of Aruna Shanbaug v. Union of India that passive euthanasia is legal in certain circumstances.
Q96. It was held by the Supreme Court that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is the bedrock and the basic structure of the Constitution – in which case?
Options:
(A) Keshavanada Bharthi v State of Kerala
(B) Minerva Mills Vs. UOI
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v Rajnarain
(D) Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is the bedrock of the Constitution in the case of Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980).
Q97. K.C. Gajapati Naryan Doe v. State of Orissa, is often quoted with reference to
Options:
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
(B) Doctrine of severability
(C) Doctrine of colorable legislation
(D) Doctrine of territorial nexus
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The case of K.C. Gajapati Narayan Deo v. State of Orissa (1953) addressed the constitutional validity of the Orissa Estate Abolition Act, 1952, and is often quoted with reference to the Doctrine of colorable legislation.
Q98. Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble Speaker, Lok Sabha deals with
Options:
(A) Presidents’ election
(B) Privileges of the legislature
(C) Pardoning power
(D) Office of profit
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble Speaker, Lok Sabha is a significant case dealing with the privileges of the legislature.
Q99. Under Art. 1 of the Constitution of India that is Bharat shall be
Options:
(A) Federation of States
(B) Union of States
(C) Democratic republic
(D) Quasi federal
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states that India, also known as Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
Q100. A Minister ceases to hold office if he does not become a member of the Legislature within six months is mentioned under
Options:
(A) Art. 164(4)
(B) Art. 164(1)
(C) Art. 164(2)
(D) Art. 164(3)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Article 164(4) of the Constitution of India states that a minister will no longer hold their position if they are not a member of the State’s legislature for six consecutive months.
