Q1. Doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the benefit of an instrument must—
Options:
(A) Not bear the burden
(B) Burden is not the subject of election
(C) Burden is the subject of election
(D) Bear the burden
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the benefit of an instrument must adopt the whole contents of the instrument, conform to all its provisions, and renounce all rights that are inconsistent with it. The doctrine of election is covered in Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
Q2. Frost v. Knight is a leading case on-
Options:
(A) Section 32, Contract Act, 1872
(B) Section 33, Contract Act, 1872
(C) Section 34, Contract Act, 1872
(D) Section 35, Contract Act, 1872
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Frost v. Knight is a leading case in English contract law that established the doctrine of anticipatory breach. The case involved a contract where the defendant promised to marry the plaintiff after the defendant’s father died, but married another woman before his father’s death. The plaintiff successfully sued for breach of promise.
Q3. Which among the following is a law based on equity?
Options:
(A) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(B) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(C) Indian Partnership Act, 1932
(D) Specific Relief Act, 1963
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Specific Relief Act of 1963 is based on the idea that equity is intended to complete the common law. The Act defines and amends the law relating to specific relief, and was enacted by Parliament in 1963.
Q4. Which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 describes temporary injunction—
Options:
(A) 45
(B) 41
(C) 37
(D) 36
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act of 1963 describes temporary injunctions. Temporary injunctions are injunctions that can be granted at any stage of a suit and can continue until a specified time or until the court’s further order.
Q5. The maintenance amount which can be transferred is
Options:
(A) Future maintenance
(B) Right to future maintenance
(C) Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A right to future Maintenance is solely for the personal benefit of the person to whom it is granted and hence cannot be transferred.
Q6. The maximum period during which property can be tied up is
Options:
(A) Only 15 years
(B) One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and the minority of an unborn person
(C) During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The maximum period during which property can be tied up is the perpetuity period, which is usually 21 years after the death of the last person alive when the restriction was created. This period is set out in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, under Section 14, also known as the Rule against Perpetuity.
Q7. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to have inflicted … on the victim.
Options:
(A) Grievous hurt
(B) Hurt
(C) Assault
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to Section 319 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever causes bodily pain, disease, or infirmity to any person is said to have inflicted ‘hurt’ on the victim.
Q8. Personation at Election is an offence under section……….of the Indian Penal Code.
Options:
(A) 124A
(B) 121A
(C) 153B
(D) 171D
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
171D. Personation at elections — Whoever at an election applies for a voting paper or votes in the name of any other person, whether living or dead, or in a fictitious name, or who having voted once at such election applies at the same election for a voting paper in his own name, commits the offence of personation at an election.
Q9. Raman having found a key of Raju’s house which Raju had lost, commits house trespass by entering Raju’s house after opening the door with that key. Raman has committed the offence of—
Options:
(A) House trespass
(B) Criminal trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), housebreaking is the act of entering a house or any part of it by force or deceit, during the day or night, with the intent to commit an offence. The IPC defines housebreaking in Section 445. The penalties for housebreaking are imprisonment for up to three years and fines.
Q10. ………………defined crime as a ‘violation of public rights and duties due to the whole community considered as community’.
Options:
(A) Blackstone
(B) Justice Bhagwati
(C) V.R. Krishna Iyer
(D) Lord Heward
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Blackstone has defined crime in his ‘Commentaries on The Laws of England.’ He defined it as ‘an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law either forbidding or commanding it.’ He also defined crime as ‘violation of the public rights and duties due to the whole community, considered as a community, in its social aggregate capacity.’
Q11. Who among the following is not a ‘public servant’?
Options:
(A) Liquidator
(B) A Civil Judge
(C) Secretary of a Co-operative Society
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines a public servant as someone who meets any of the following descriptions: a commissioned officer in the Indian military, naval, or air forces; a judge or someone who is empowered by law to discharge their duties; an officer of a court of justice, such as a liquidator, receiver, or commissioner; a juryman, assessor, or member of a panchayat who assists a court of justice or public servant.
Q12. The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (Universal Rural Employment Programme) was launched in 2001 and was implemented through
Options:
(A) Labour offices
(B) Government
(C) Panchayati Raj Institutions
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY), or Universal Rural Employment Programme, was implemented through the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). The SGRY was launched in 2001 by merging the Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) and Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY). The SGRY’s goals were to provide employment and food to the rural poor.
Q13. Right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose-off property is abolished by—
Options:
(A) 44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978
(B) 43rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
(C) 50th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1950
(D) 1st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1951
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property as a fundamental right in the Indian Constitution.
Q14. Which one of the following is not covered under the definition of State—
Options:
(A) The Indian Statistical Institute
(B) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(C) Sainik School Society
(D) NCERT
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
No, the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is not a State under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution. NCERT doesn’t come under the State. It is neither substantially financed by the Government nor subject to the control of the Government.
Q15. National Conservation Strategy and Policy Environment Statement on Environment and Development is a major environmental policy in India and it was passed in the year—
Options:
(A) 1988
(B) 1982
(C) 1992
(D) 1990
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development was passed in 1992. It is a major environmental policy in India that aims to integrate environmental considerations into the country’s development process.
Q16. ……………of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, defines ‘Environment’
Options:
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 3(a)
(C) Section 1(a)
(D) Section 11(a)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to Section 2(a) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, ‘Environment’ includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists among and between water, air and land, and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property.
Q17. Polluter Pays Principle means—
Options:
(A) Polluter should bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is responsible for pollution
(B) Polluter should not necessarily bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may not be responsible for pollution
(C) Polluter may bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may be responsible for pollution
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The polluter pays principle (PPP) is a principle that holds those who pollute the environment responsible for the costs of cleaning up and preventing further damage.
Q18. “Pollution is a civil wrong. By its very nature, it is a tort committed against the community as a whole. A person, therefore, who is guilty of causing pollution, has to pay damages (compensation) for restoration of the environment. He has also to pay damages to those who have suffered loss on account of the act of the offender. Further, the offender can also be held liable to pay exemplary damages so that it may act as a deterrent for others not to cause pollution in any manner. However, the court cannot impose any pollution fine in absence of any trial and finding of guilty under the relevant statutory provisions.” This observation was made in—
Options:
(A) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
(B) Calcutta Tanneries Case
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(D) A.P. Pollution Control Board v. M.V. Nayudu
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The judgment in the case M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath and Others established several key points, including the Public Trust Doctrine and the Polluter Pays Principle.
Q19. India became a party to the International Convention on Biological Diversity in the year—
Options:
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1994
(D) 2000
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
India became a party to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) on February 18, 1994. The CBD was signed by nations at the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, and came into effect on December 29, 1993.
Q20. “A”, a railway company, is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of wharfage, demurrage and freight but rival claims have been made by B and C adversely to each other. A can institute-
Options:
(A) An application to decide the same
(B) An interpleader suit
(C) Friendly suit
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An interpleader suit is a civil procedure that allows a party to force multiple parties to litigate a dispute between themselves. The party initiating the suit, called the stakeholder, holds property that multiple parties claim to own. The stakeholder can use an interpleader suit to bring all the claimants together in one action, instead of litigating with each claimant separately.
Q21. What is the period of limitation to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment?
Options:
(A) 2 Years
(B) 3 Years
(C) 5%
(D) 10%
(E) One Year
Correct Answer: (E)
Explanation:
The period of limitation to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment in India is one year from the date the imprisonment ends. This is according to Article 73 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963.
Q22. As per Section 19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 if any payment is made on account of a debt, before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or by his agent duly authorized in that behalf a fresh period of limitation starts running from the—
Options:
(A) Time when suit was filed
(B) When the payment was made
(C) When the creditor demands
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 19 of the Limitation Act of 1963 in India states that when a payment is made on account of a debt or interest on a legacy, a new period of limitation begins from the time of the payment. This applies if the payment is made by the person liable to pay or by an authorized agent.
Q23. Under the Companies Act, 2013, any company having a net worth of rupees 500 crore or more or a turnover of rupees 1,000 crores or more or a net profit of rupees 5 crore or more should mandatorily spend……………of their net profits per fiscal on Corporate Social Responsibility activities
Options:
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 10%
(D) 2%
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Companies are required to spend a minimum of 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years as CSR.
Q24. The……………Guidelines constitute one of the most comprehensive CSR tools available to companies.
Options:
(A) OECD
(B) OACF
(C) OECG
(D) ASEAN
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises on Responsible Business Conduct were first adopted in 1976 by the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD). The guidelines are non-binding recommendations that provide principles and standards for responsible business conduct by multinational corporations.
Q25. Conditions of Hindu Marriage have been laid down under………of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955—
Options:
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 13
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The conditions of a Hindu marriage are laid down under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Q26. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005—
Options:
(A) Allows married daughters of the deceased equal rights with unmarried daughters
(B) Allows sons of the deceased equal rights with widow
(C) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with wife
(D) Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with sons
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 was enacted to remove gender-based discrimination in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The Act was a significant step in Indian legislation to protect women’s rights.
Q27. The Fuller/Hart Debate could be summarized as a debate between which two jurisprudential approaches/positions.
Options:
(A) Positivism and utilitarianism
(B) Natural Law and Positivism
(C) Positivism and Liberalism
(D) Marxism and liberal feminism
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Hart–Fuller debate was a jurisprudential exchange between legal positivist H.L.A. Hart and natural law advocate Lon L. Fuller that took place in 1958. The debate centered on the relationship between law and morality, and between the two opposing views: Legal positivism (Hart argued that morality and law are separate) and Natural law (Fuller argued that morality is the source of law’s binding power).
Q28. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than—
Options:
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year
(C) 2 years
(D) 3 years
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 110 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the security of good behaviour from habitual offenders. It allows a District Magistrate or other Executive Magistrate to require a person to show cause why they should not be ordered to execute a bond for good behaviour. The bond can be for a period of up to three years.
Q29. Section 167 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the nature of custody altered from judicial custody to police custody and vice-versa. This alteration can be done during the period of first—
Options:
(A) 15 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 14 days
(D) 12 days
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 deals with the procedure to be followed when an investigation cannot be completed within 24 hours. It also covers the powers and limitations of a Magistrate in this regard.
Q30. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non-bailable—
Options:
(A) Section 150
(B) Section 105
(C) Section 50
(D) Section 510
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 50 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) states that a person arrested without a warrant must be informed of the reasons for their arrest and their right to bail.
Q31. Section 41B is inserted into the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions:
Options:
(A) Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dhani
(B) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(C) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
(D) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 41B of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) was inserted based on the decision to outline the procedure for arrest and the duties of the arresting officer. One of the duties of the arresting officer is to inform the person arrested that they have the right to have a relative or friend named by them to be informed of their arrest.
Q32. Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a clinical Psychologist/Psychiatrist. However, by virtue of section………………the aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of head of Psychiatry and faculty of Medical College.
Options:
(A) 328, Cr.P.C.
(B) 328 (1A), Cr.P.C.
(C) 328 (2), Cr.P.C.
(D) 346, Cr.P.C.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) Section 328(1A) deals with the procedure to be followed when a Magistrate or Court is informed that an accused is of unsound mind.
Q33. SFIO stands for—
Options:
(A) Serious Fraud Investigation Office
(B) Serious Force Institution Office
(C) Serious Form Investigation Office
(D) Serious File Investigation Office
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Serious Fraud Investigation Office is a statutory agency in India tasked with investigating corporate fraud. It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, with the mandate of detecting and prosecuting or recommending prosecution for white-collar crimes.
Q34. Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 discusses about the issue of bonus shares out of its free reserves or the securities premium account or the capital redemption reserve account, subject to the compliance with certain conditions such as authorization by the article, approval in the general meeting?
Options:
(A) Section 36
(B) Section 43
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 33
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 63 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the issue of bonus shares. A company can issue bonus shares if it is authorized by its articles, the Board recommends it, and it is authorized in a General Meeting as an Ordinary Resolution.
Q35. The question whether the Fundamental Rights can be amended under Article 368 came for consideration first time in—
Options:
(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
(B) Keshavananda Bharati v. Union of India
(C) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Shankari Prasad Case established the principle that the Parliament had the authority to amend fundamental rights through constitutional amendments.
Q36. A law which violates fundamental rights is not nullity or void-ab-initio but becomes only unenforceable, this doctrine is called as
Options:
(A) Doctrine of severability
(B) Doctrine of 3 points
(C) Tornado doctrine
(D) Doctrine of eclipse
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The doctrine of eclipse states that laws that were valid when they were enacted but are no longer valid because they conflict with fundamental rights are not automatically invalid. Instead, they are considered to be in a dormant or eclipsed state.
Q37. Equality of opportunity discrimination with reasons, it was observed by apex court in
Options:
(A) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
(B) Indir Sawhney v. Union of India
(C) Air India v. Norgesh Mirza
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The 1976 case State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas was a landmark ruling on the constitutionality of reservation policies for backward classes in Government employment. The case established that reservation for backward classes is constitutional and does not violate Article 16(1) and 16(2) of the Constitution.
Q38. Evidences to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts is called as—
Options:
(A) Patent ambiguity
(B) Latent ambiguity
(C) Both of them
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Patent ambiguity is a legal term that describes a situation where a legal document is unclear or has multiple meanings.
Q39. Original document is the best evidence. Exception to this rule is contained in—
Options:
(A) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(B) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) Bankers Book Evidence Act, 1891
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with when secondary evidence can be used in relation to a document, including when the original is lost or destroyed, not easily movable, a public document, or a document that can be certified.
Q40. In bailment if the goods are lent free of cost to the bailee for his use it is known as bailment by—
Options:
(A) Deposition
(B) Pledge
(C) Commodation
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Bailment of commodation is a type of bailment where goods are delivered to a bailee for hire. Bailment is a contract where one party delivers goods to another for a specific purpose, with the understanding that the goods will be returned when the purpose is complete.
Q41. Where the proposal and acceptance is through letters, the contract is made at the place where—
Options:
(A) The acceptance is received
(B) The letter of acceptance is posted
(C) Both the above answers
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
When a proposal and acceptance are made through letters, the contract is made at the place where the acceptance is received.
Q42. The surety stands discharged by—
Options:
(A) Death
(B) Revocation
(C) Variance in the terms of the contract without his consent
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
A surety can be discharged from their liability in several circumstances, including: contract between the creditor and the principal debtor, creditor’s act or omission, and variance in the terms of the contract without the surety’s consent.
Q43. All contracts which are unlawful and void are known as
Options:
(A) Illegal contracts
(B) Nugatory contracts
(C) Voidable contracts
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A nugatory contract is a contract that is considered invalid, useless, or of no force or effect, often due to terms that are unfair or worthless to one party.
Q44. Section…………… of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 deals with ‘noting’—
Options:
(A) 100
(B) 101
(C) 102
(D) 99
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 99 of the Negotiable Instruments Act of 1881 deals with noting. When a promissory note or bill of exchange is dishonored, the holder can have a notary public note the dishonour on the instrument or on a separate paper.
Q45. Cancellation of crossing is also called—
Options:
(A) Marking
(B) Opening of crossing
(C) Cancellation
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A crossed check is a check that has two parallel lines drawn across it, either on the sides or across the entire check. The lines can be drawn anywhere on the check, but it is usually recommended to put them on the top left.
Q46. Negotiable claim issued by a bank in return for a term deposit is called—
Options:
(A) Share certificate
(B) Certificate of incorporation
(C) Certificate of deposit
(D) Term deposit
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A negotiable instrument issued by a bank in exchange for a term deposit is called a Certificate of Deposit (CD) or a Negotiable Instrument of Deposit (NID).
Q47. Wager relate with—
Options:
(A) Present event
(B) Past event
(C) Future event
(D) Any of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A wager generally contemplates a future event; but it may even relate to an event which has already happened in the past, but the parties are not aware of its result or the time of its happening. Secondly, equal chances of gain or loss to the parties.
Q48. In the judgment of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by……… to prepare a case management formula.
Options:
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Justice Muralidhar
(C) Justice Raveendran
(D) Justice Jagannadha Rao
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India’s judgment in the case of Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India upheld the constitutionality of the amendments made to the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) in 1999 and 2002.
Q49. The Companies Act, 2013 has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to—
Options:
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 150
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Act defines a private company as one which, by its articles, restricts the right to transfer its shares, limits the number of its members to 200, and prohibits any subscriptions by the general public.
Q50. The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the Companies Act, 2013 and would be subject to notification by the—
Options:
(A) NFRA
(B) NRFA
(C) NARG
(D) SEBI
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The objective of the National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India.
Q51. Rabindra Kumar Pal @ Dara Singh v. Republic of India a famous case coming under Section 30 of Evidence Act, 1872 is also well-known as—
Options:
(A) Graham Stains Murder case
(B) Graham Bells Murder case
(C) Graham Street’s Murder case
(D) Graham Stoits Murder case
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The case of Rabindra Kumar Pal @ Dara Singh v. Republic of India is also known as the Graham Staines Murder Case. The case is related to the murder of Graham Staines and his two sons, Philip and Timothy, who were burnt alive in 1999. In 2011, the Supreme Court upheld Pal’s life sentence.
Q52. Statement by a person who is dead is a relevant fact under ………of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Options:
(A) Section 32(3)
(B) Section 32(4)
(C) Section 32(5)
(D) Section 32(1)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A statement by a person who is dead is a relevant fact under Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q53. A Charge-Sheet filed under Section 173 of Cr.P.C. is an example of—
Options:
(A) Public document
(B) Private document
(C) Patent document
(D) Latent document
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Copy of the chargesheet along with the necessary documents cannot be said to be public documents within the definition of Public Documents.
Q54. Procedure of investigation of criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code is contained in Chapter—
Options:
(A) XI
(B) XII
(C) X
(D) IX
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The procedure for investigating criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is contained in Chapter 12, which covers the powers of the police to investigate and information to the police.
Q55. Identify the correct order in which the following law-making treaties are concluded: (1) The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations; (2) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade; (3) The Declaration of Paris
Options:
(A) (1), (3), (2)
(B) (3), (2), (1)
(C) (2),(1), (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Treaty of Paris was signed on September 3, 1783. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed in 1947. The Vienna Convention on Consular Relations was signed on April 24, 1963. Correct order: (3) Declaration of Paris → (2) GATT → (1) Vienna Convention.
Q56. Which one of the following doctrine requires that the parties to a treaty are bound to observe its terms in good faith?
Options:
(A) The Drago doctrine
(B) Right of asylum
(C) Doctrine of equality
(D) Pacta Sunt Servanda
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Pacta sunt servanda is a Latin phrase that translates to ‘agreements must be kept’. It is a fundamental principle of international law that states that parties to a contract or treaty are obligated to abide by the terms of the agreement.
Q57. General Assembly adopted the definition of word “Aggression” through-
Options:
(A) Resolution 3314 XXIX, 1974
(B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX, 1973
(C) Resolution 2213, 1982
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Definition of Aggression through Resolution 3314 (XXIX) on December 14, 1974.
Q58. The admission of a new political entity into the United Nations can be termed as—
Options:
(A) Express recognition
(B) Conditional recognition
(C) Collective recognition
(D) De-facto recognition
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Collective recognition is when multiple States work together to recognize an entity, usually through international organizations or agreements. It can help strengthen the legitimacy of the recognized entity and ensure a unified international response.
Q59. “A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Who stated this?
Options:
(A) L. Oppenheim
(B) Hobbes
(C) Fenwick
(D) Starke
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Oppenheim’s most important book is International Law: A Treatise, 2 vol. (1905–06), in which he elaborated an international jurisprudence based on specific agreements and customs among nations rather than on theoretical prescriptions.
Q60. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in-
Options:
(A) 1997
(B) 1998
(C) 1996
(D) 2013
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on Electronic Commerce (MLEC) on June 12, 1996.
Q61. Section 3 of Information Technology Act, 2000 which was originally “Digital Signature” was renamed as ………in Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008:
Options:
(A) “Digital Signature and Electronic Signature”
(B) “Digital Signature and E-Signature”
(C) “Digital and Electronic Signature”
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Section 3 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, which was originally titled ‘Digital Signature’, was renamed as ‘Electronic Signature’ in the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008.
Q62. Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?
Options:
(A) M/s. Safescript
(B) M/s. NCERT
(C) M/s. MTL
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
M/s Safescript, also known as Sify Safescrypt, is a digital trust certificate service provider and digital security solutions company. It was India’s first licensed certifying authority (CA).
Q63. Section 43 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with—
Options:
(A) Criminal liability
(B) Civil liability
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 43 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the penalty and compensation for damage to a computer, computer system, or computer network.
Q64. “Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affected.” Which section of the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 envisages so?
Options:
(A) 43
(B) 43A
(C) 43B
(D) 43C
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 43A of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2008, requires ‘body corporates’ to implement and maintain reasonable security practices and procedures to protect sensitive personal data.
Q65. R obtained a sum of Rs. 50,000/- from D by putting D in fear of death. Here, R commits—
Options:
(A) Extortion
(B) Cheating
(C) Mischief
(D) Robbery
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Robbery is defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) under Sections 390 and 392. Section 390 defines robbery as either theft or extortion. Section 392 defines the punishment for robbery.
Q66. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is……………from the date on which it becomes due.
Options:
(A) 1 year
(B) 5 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 15 years
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The period of limitation for execution of a maintenance order is one year from the date on which it becomes due.
Q67. The Jural correlative of immunity is
Options:
(A) Power
(B) Disability
(C) No claim
(D) Claim
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The jural correlative of immunity is disability, which means a lack of power.
Q68. Who defines “eternal law is the divine order or Will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach of it”?
Options:
(A) Ambrose
(B) Augustine
(C) Gregory
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
St. Thomas Aquinas defined eternal law as ‘the divine order or Will of God which requires the preservation of natural order and forbids the breach of it’ in his Treatise on Law. Aquinas believed that eternal law is God’s plan for all things.
Q69. ‘Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one.’ Who stated so?
Options:
(A) Thomas Paine
(B) Gregory Peck
(C) Jefferson
(D) Dicey
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Thomas Paine said, ‘Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one’ in his work Common Sense. Paine believed that governments are only necessary because humans are not morally virtuous enough to do without them.
Q70. The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of Tribunals as instruments of quasi-judicial administrative adjudication
Options:
(A) Article 39(a) and 39(b)
(B) Articles 323A and 323B
(C) Article 368
(D) Articles 202A and 202B
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Articles 323A and 323B of the Indian Constitution are about the establishment of tribunals in India. Article 323A deals with administrative tribunals for service-related matters. Article 323B deals with other types of tribunals for a broader range of disputes.
Q71. Nemo judex in causa sua meaning “No man shall be a judge in his own cause” was first stated by
Options:
(A) Lord Grey
(B) Lord Heward
(C) Lord Coke
(D) Lord Moulton
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The legal maxim nemo judex in causa sua, which means ‘no man shall be a judge in his own cause’, was first stated by British jurist Sir Edward Coke in the 17th century. Coke articulated the principle while serving as Lord Chief Justice.
Q72. General power of the Bar Council of India to make Rules is envisaged under which section of the Advocates Act, 1961?
Options:
(A) Section 48
(B) Section 49
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 42
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 49 of the Advocates Act of 1961 gives the Bar Council of India the power to make rules for carrying out the functions of the Act. These rules can cover a wide range of topics, including membership qualifications, voting, and practice conditions.
Q73. Seven lamps of advocacy is attributable to—
Options:
(A) Justice Abbot Parry
(B) Justice Heward
(C) Justice Bhagwati
(D) Justice Grey
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Seven Lamps of Advocacy is attributed to Edward Abbott Parry. The seven lamps are: Honesty, Courage, Wit, Industry, Eloquence, Judgment, and Fellowship.
Q74. Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India?
Options:
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 36
(D) 39
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 36 of the Advocates Act of 1961 deals with the disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India (BCI).
Q75. Section………of Advocates Act, 1961 speaks about Constitution of Legal Aid Committees.
Options:
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 9A
(D) 10A
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 9A of the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with the constitution of legal aid committees. A Bar Council can establish one or more legal aid committees with a minimum of five members and a maximum of nine members.
Q76. Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code (Amendment) Act of……………which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying Alternate Dispute Resolution mechanisms
Options:
(A) 1989
(B) 1999
(C) 1988
(D) 2009
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999 was an act that aimed to reduce delays in the pre-trial stage of civil cases. The Act came into force on a date appointed by the Central Government in the Official Gazette.
Q77. In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside india, unless any or all provisions have been excluded by agreement between the parties.
Options:
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A.
(B) United India Ins. Co. Ltd. v. Associated Transport Corporation Ltd.
(C) Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) Ltd.
(D) Ajmera Brothers v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India’s decision in Bhatia International established that Part I of the Act applies to international arbitrations, even those held outside of India.
Q78. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under section…… Legal Services Authority Act, 1987
Options:
(A) 22B
(B) 22A
(C) 22(1)
(D) 22
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Permanent Lok Adalats are established under Section 22-B of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Central Authority or State Authority can establish Permanent Lok Adalats for specific areas and public utility services.
Q79. What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts?
Options:
(A) Specific performance and injunction
(B) Specific performance and damages
(C) Specific performance only
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The person aggrieved in a suit on contracts has remedies of specific performance, injunction and damages.
Q80. ‘A’ resides at Delhi, and ‘B’ at Agra. B borrows Rs. 20,000/- from A at Benares and passes a promissory note to A payable at Benares. B fails to repay the loan. A may sue B at—
Options:
(A) Benares or Agra
(B) Benares only
(C) Agra only
(D) Benares, Agra and Delhi
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 states that a suit must be filed in a court within the local limits of its jurisdiction: when the defendant resides in the area, when the defendant carries on business in the area, when the defendant works for gain in the area, or when the cause of action arises in the area.
Q81. The general principle of waiver that provides that failure to raise objection in the court of the first instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent stage and the judgment would not be vitiated on the ground of absence of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908—
Options:
(A) Section 15
(B) Section 16
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 21
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 deals with objections to jurisdiction: No objections to the place of suing — Appellate or Revisional Courts cannot allow objections to the place of suing unless the objection was made in the first instance court. No objections to the court’s competence — Appellate or Revisional Courts cannot allow objections to the court’s competence unless the objection was made in the first instance court.
Q82. Act of court can do no wrong to any person. Which concept relates to this ideology—
Options:
(A) Precept
(B) Caveat
(C) Restitution
(D) Injunction
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The legal maxim actus curiae neminem gravabit states that no one should be prejudiced by the actions of a court. This means that any action of the court that is found to be erroneous or bad should not be allowed to harm the interests of any party. If a party is harmed by the court’s actions, the court is obligated to undo the wrong.
Q83. As per the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the word ‘inspection’ used in Section 93(1)(c) refers to—
Options:
(A) Things or documents
(B) Documents only
(C) Locality and place
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 93 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 states when a court can issue a search warrant.
Q84. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used during trial for—
Options:
(A) Corroborating the witness
(B) Contradicting the witness
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the examination of witnesses by police officers.
Q85. “If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such mino offence has been committed.” It was so upheld in which case—
Options:
(A) Sengarahonia Sreenu v. State of Andhra Pradesh
(B) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
(C) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) Nalini v. State of Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer to this case State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta.
Q86. Ex dolo malo oritur actio’ is
Options:
(A) An action arose only when a right infringes
(B) An action could not prevent a legal right
(C) No action on an immoral act
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
‘Ex dolo malo non oritur actio’ is a Latin legal phrase that means ‘an action cannot arise from fraud’. It is a fundamental principle in many legal systems that prevents people from using their own wrongful or fraudulent conduct as the basis for a legal claim.
Q87. Qui facit per alium facit per se, means
Options:
(A) Act of an agent is the act of principal
(B) Act of an agent is not an act of principal
(C) Principal and agent are liable jointly
(D) Agent must not act in contravention of the act of principal
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
‘Qui facit per alium facit per se’ is a Latin phrase that means ‘He who acts through another does the act himself’. It is a fundamental legal maxim in the law of agency.
Q88. The concept of ‘privity of contract’ was rejected in—
Options:
(A) Winterbottom v. Wright
(B) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(C) Longmeid v. Holiday
(D) Heaven v. Pender
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
In the first case of Winterbottom v. Wright (1842), in which Winterbottom, a postal service wagon driver, was injured due to a faulty wheel, attempted to sue the manufacturer Wright for his injuries. The courts however decided that there was no privity of contract between manufacturer and consumer.
Q89. ………is observed as the world consumer rights day
Options:
(A) 15th of March
(B) 16th of March
(C) 12th of March
(D) 11th of March
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
March 15th is observed as World Consumer Rights Day.
Q90. Accountability of medical professional and the need for qualitative change in the attitude of the medical service provided by the hospitals was emphasized by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases
Options:
(A) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A.
(B) Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha and Ors.
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(D) Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
In the 1995 case Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha and Ors., the Supreme Court of India ruled that medical professionals are covered under the Consumer Protection Act (COPRA).
Q91. Renewal of driving licenses is envisaged under Section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
Options:
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 15
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The renewal of a driving license is covered under Section 15 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988.
Q92. Section 82, IPC is an illustration for—
Options:
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Presumption of law
(C) Presumption of fact and presumption of law
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is an example of doli incapax, which means that a child under the age of seven is not considered criminally responsible for their actions.
Q93. Meaning of Nemo moriturus praesumuntur mentiri
Options:
(A) A dying man can never speak truth
(B) A dying man can never speak falsehood
(C) A dying man can speak truth
(D) A dying man may not speak falsehood
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The legal maxim nemo moriturus praesumitur mentiri means ‘a man will not meet his maker with a lie in his mouth’. It is the principle that underlies the admissibility of dying declarations, which are statements made by someone who is about to die.
Q94. If a court lower to the Sessions Court tries a murder case that court is called as
Options:
(A) Coram sub judice
(B) Coram non judice
(C) Coram non subjudice
(D) Coram judice
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
‘Coram non judice’ is a legal term that means ‘not before a judge’. It is used to describe a legal proceeding that takes place without a judge, or with a judge who does not have the proper jurisdiction.
Q95. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is mainly meant to serve the needs of—
Options:
(A) Organised workers
(B) Unorganised workers
(C) Unorganized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
(D) Organized sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is a government-subsidized health insurance scheme for the poor in India. The scheme was launched in 2008 to improve access to healthcare and reduce the financial burden of healthcare expenses.
Q96. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is proclaimed under………Constitution of India.
Options:
(A) Article 39(a)
(B) Article 39(d)
(C) Article 39(b)
(D) Article 39(c)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Article 39(d) emphasizes the importance of ensuring equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q97. Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year—
Options:
(A) 1992
(B) 1982
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 10A(1) in the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, provides that where any workmen is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance.
Q98. ………was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to go slow—
Options:
(A) Bank of India v. T.S. Kelawala
(B) Randhir Singh v. Union of India Solved Papers
(C) Kamani Metals and Alloys Ltd. v. Their Workmen
(D) Workmen v. Reptakos Brett and Co. Ltd.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Bank of India v. T.S. Kelawala was a landmark 1990 Supreme Court case that established that the legality of a strike is not a factor in determining whether wages should be paid. The court ruled that the bank could not unilaterally reduce employee wages without a specific term in the regulations, awards, or settlements.
Q99. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services of an individual workman, any dispute/ difference arising out of such termination shall be deemed to be:
Options:
(A) Industrial dispute
(B) Individual dispute
(C) Both individual and industrial dispute
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Under the Industrial Disputes Act, any dispute or difference that arises between an employer and an individual workman after the employer terminates the workman’s services is considered an industrial dispute. This is true even if no other workman or union of workmen is involved in the dispute.
Q100. Gloucestershire Grammar School Case is a leading case to explain the—
Options:
(A) Volenti non fit injuria
(B) Injuria non fit volenti
(C) Damnum sine injuria
(D) Injuria sine damnum
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Gloucester Grammar School Case is a leading case in law that explains the legal concept of damnum sine injuria.
