Q1. The conciliation proceedings:
Options:
(A) can be used as evidence in any judicial proceedings.
(B) can be used as evidence only in arbitral proceedings.
(C) can be used as evidence only on the discretion of the judge or arbitrator.
(D) cannot be used as evidence in any judicial or arbitral proceedings
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 81 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 in India deals with the admissibility of evidence in other proceedings. It states that parties cannot use certain information as evidence in arbitral or judicial proceedings. This includes views, suggestions, admissions, and proposals made by the parties during conciliation proceedings. This applies even if the proceedings are not related to the dispute that was the subject of the conciliation proceedings.
Q2. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office:
Options:
(A) Takes up cases suo moto
(B) Takes up cases for investigation on the basis of application made by the people concerned
(C) Takes up cases for investigations referred to it by Central Government
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 212 of the Companies Act, 2013 gives the Central Government the power to order the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) to investigate a company’s affairs. The section’s purpose is to prevent people from being investigated for the same offence by two different agencies at the same time.
Q3. Directive Principles are:
Options:
(A) justifiable as fundamental rights
(B) justifiable but not as fundamental rights
(C) decorative portions of Indian Constitution
(D) not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of ideals that guide the Indian Government in making laws and formulating policies. They are found in Part IV of the Constitution of India, Articles 36 to 51.
Q4. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha:
Options:
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Council of Ministers
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The President of India has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha, or House of the People, before the end of its five-year term. This power is granted to the President by Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India.
Q5. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of Bill for such purpose in:
Options:
(A) Council of States
(B) House of People
(C) Either in Council of States or House of people
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the State legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.
Q6. Which of the following is a function of Central Pollution Control Board under the provisions of Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981?
Options:
(A) To carry out and sponsor investigation and research relating to problems of pollution and prevention, control or abatement of pollution.
(B) To improve the quality of air
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to Section 16 of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has the following functions: Advise the Central Government on matters related to air pollution, including its prevention, control, and abatement; and plan and execute a nationwide program to prevent, control, and abate air pollution.
Q7. The destruction of fish by use of explosive or by poisoning the water is prohibited by:
Options:
(A) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(B) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(C) Indian Fisheries Act, 1897
(D) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Indian Fisheries Act of 1897 prohibits the use of dynamite and poison to destroy fish. The Act regulates riverine and inshore fisheries, and protects fish resources in certain waters. The Act prohibits the use of dynamite and poison in fishing.
Q8. Section 10 of CPC does not apply—
Options:
(A) when the previous suit is pending in the same court
(B) when the previous suit is pending in a foreign court
(C) when the previous suit is pending in any other court of India
(D) when the previous suit is pending in a court outside India established by the Central Government
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) may not apply in certain situations, including different subject-matter (Section 10 only applies if the subject-matter of both suits is identical) and different purpose (if the issue being adjudicated is for a limited purpose, such as deciding an application under Order 22, CPC, then Section 10 may not apply).
Q9. Principle of Res judicata is:
Options:
(A) Mandatory
(B) Directory
(C) Discretionary
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The principle of res judicata, which translates to ‘a matter judged’, is a legal doctrine that prevents the relitigation of a matter that has already been decided by a court.
Q10. International law is a weak law because:
Options:
(A) It is not enforceable as such, it is not a law but a positive morality
(B) There is absence of compulsory dispute settlement mechanisms and independent system of sanctions
(C) It only includes States as subjects dependable sources
(D) There is no dependable available
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
International law is considered weak for a number of reasons, including lack of enforcement, voluntary compliance, and a decentralized system. International law lacks an effective executive authority to enforce its rules and relies on consent and consensus among nations.
Q11. Which of the following territories have been declared as Common Heritage of Mankind Territories? (1) Moon (2) High Seas (3) Deep sea bed (4) Antarctica
Options:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Common Heritage of Mankind (CHM) is an international law principle that establishes certain areas and resources as the common property of all humanity. The CHM principle states that these areas and resources should be protected from exploitation by individual states and corporations, and instead be used for the benefit of all people.
Q12. Which of the following is not the objective of the United Nations
Options:
(A) Maintenance of International peace and security
(B) Ensuring respect for treaty obligations
(C) Establishment of democratic governments throughout the world
(D) Promotion of better standards of life
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN) has several objectives, including maintaining international peace and security and protecting human rights. The UN promotes respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms for all people.
Q13. The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
Options:
(A) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(B) Justice Altamas Kabeer
(C) Justice J.S. Verma
(D) Justice J.S. Anand
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by Justice J.S. Verma, a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
Q14. If an instrument may be construed either as promissory note or bill of exchange, it is
Options:
(A) a valid instrument
(B) an ambiguous instrument
(C) returnable instrument
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An instrument that can be construed as either a promissory note or a bill of exchange is an ambiguous instrument. The holder of the instrument can treat it as either, and it will be treated accordingly.
Q15. How is the net worth of a foreign Company calculated for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility?
Options:
(A) The networth will be calculated as per section 198 of Companies Act, 2013
(B) It shall be calculated as per section 197 of the Companies Act, 2013
(C) It shall be calculated as per section 197 and section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013
(D) It shall be calculated as per section 198 and section 381 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The net worth of a foreign company for the purpose of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is calculated in accordance with the company’s balance sheet and profit and loss account. These accounts must be prepared in accordance with the provisions of section 381 and section 198 of the Act.
Q16. According to one of the theories of punishment evil should be returned by evil. This theory is called the—
Options:
(A) Reformative Theory
(B) Deterrent Theory
(C) Preventive Theory
(D) Retributive Theory
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The theory that suggests evil should be returned by evil is called the retributive theory of punishment.
Q17. Which of the following actions can be taken by a Registrar under section 4(5) of the Companies Act, 2013?
Options:
(A) He can direct the Company to change it is name within a period of 6 months after passing an ordinary resolution
(B) Take action for striking off the name of the Company from the register of Companies
(C) Order winding up of the Company on his own accord
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 4(5) of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the actions the Registrar can take if a company’s name is reserved using incorrect information.
Q18. Which of the following are included in the concept of “State” under Article 12?
Options:
(A) Railway Board and Electricity Board
(B) Judiciary
(C) University
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The concept of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Constitution of India includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and Legislature of each State, all local or other authorities within India, and authorities under the control of the Government of India.
Q19. The words “procedure established by law” in Article 21 means
Options:
(A) That due process of law must be followed
(B) A procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority
(C) The same thing as due process of law
(D) A law which is reasonable, just and fair.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The phrase ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution means that a person’s life or personal liberty can only be taken away in accordance with a procedure that is laid down by statute or prescribed by law.
Q20. Objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties under Order 1, Rule 13 of CPC
Options:
(A) can be taken at any stage of the proceedings
(B) should be taken at the earliest possible opportunity or shall be invalid
(C) can be taken in appeal or revision for the first time
(D) either (A) or (C)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), Order 1, Rule 13 states that objections regarding non-joinder or misjoinder of parties must be raised at the earliest possible stage of the proceedings. If a party fails to raise an objection promptly, they may be deemed to have waived their right to object later in the proceedings.
Q21. Objection as to the place of suing
Options:
(A) can only be taken before the court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity
(B) can also be taken before the appellate court for the first time
(C) can also be taken before the court of revision for the first time
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 states that an objection to the place of suing can only be made in the court of first instance at the earliest opportunity.
Q22. On the retirement, removal or death of a next friend, under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of CPC, the suit is liable to be—
Options:
(A) stayed
(B) dismissed
(C) rejected
(D) either (A), (B) or (C)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
When a next friend retires, is removed, or dies, the court will stay the proceedings of a suit under Order XXXII, Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) until a new next friend is appointed.
Q23. In India which of the following authorities has the power to block websites?
Options:
(A) CERT-IND
(B) MCITPC
(C) C-DAC
(D) Ministry of IT
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
In India, the Central Government and the Department of Telecommunications (DOT) have the power to block websites. The Central Government has the authority to issue directions to block websites under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act. The DOT ensures that websites are blocked and informs the CERT-IND.
Q24. The right to private defence is—
Options:
(A) Available under all circumstances
(B) Available when there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities
(C) Available when there is no time to have recourse of public authorities
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Private defence is the use of actions that may be considered illegal to protect oneself, another person, or property. The right to private defence is subject to strict limitations to ensure that the use of force is justified and proportionate to the threat.
Q25. Which of the following can be considered retrenchment under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
Options:
(A) Termination due to ill-health
(B) Abandonment of job by an employee
(C) Termination on account of reaching the age of superannuation
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Retrenchment is different from disciplinary action and is usually not a reflection of an employee’s performance. It is often driven by broader organizational challenges.
Q26. Which of the following statement holds true regarding imprisonment under the provisions of section 14(3) of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
Options:
(A) It may extend to one year.
(B) It may extend to two years.
(C) It may extend to six months
(D) It may extend to one month
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 also provides for other penalties, including simple imprisonment which may extend to one month or with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees or with both for those who fail to comply with other provisions of the Act.
Q27. Onus to prove reasonable excuse for withdrawal from the Society of the other is on—
Options:
(A) Petitioner
(B) Respondent
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the restitution of conjugal rights. Under this law, if one spouse has deserted the other without any reason, the aggrieved party may approach the court for a decree of restitution of conjugal rights.
Q28. Which of the following statements hold true for adjudicatory bodies
Options:
(A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis applies to them
(B) Doctrine of Res judicata does not apply to them
(C) Inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured or created by the act of the parties
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
An inherent lack of jurisdiction in a tribunal cannot be cured by the act of the parties. This is because an inherent lack of jurisdiction affects the court’s authority to pass a decree, and the consent of the parties cannot fix this.
Q29. The Supreme Court held in V.C. Rangadurai v. D. Gopalan that an advocate who has been disbarred or suspended from practice must prove after expiration of a reasonable length of time that
Options:
(A) He appreciates the insignificance of his dereliction
(B) He has lived a consistent life of poverty and integrity
(C) He possesses the good character necessary to guarantee uprightness and honour in his professional dealings
(D) The burden is on the applicant to establish that he is entitled to resume the privilege of practicing law without restrictions
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
V. C. Rangadurai was found guilty of professional misconduct, but his suspension from practise was reduced from six years to one.
Q30. The present Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on:
Options:
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Supreme Court of India guidelines
(C) European Commercial Arbitration Procedure
(D) UNCITRAL
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration, 1985, and the UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules, 1980. The act was enacted to provide a legislative framework for domestic and international arbitration, as well as the enforcement of foreign arbitral awards.
Q31. Who among the following is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus:
Options:
(A) SEBI
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) National Company Law Tribunal
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is authorized to issue regulations regarding shelf prospectus.
Q32. Which of the following is not included in the definition of cattle as given under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
Options:
(A) Rams
(B) Kids
(C) Kitten
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Indian Forest Act of 1927 is a law that consolidated and unified the legislation for forests, forest produce, and the duty on timber and other forest produce in India. The act also outlined the rights of forest dwellers, protected wildlife, and provided for the development and conservation of forests.
Q33. The provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 have to be interpreted being uninfluenced by the principles underlying the 1940 Act. This observation was laid down in:
Options:
(A) M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlise Industries (India) Ltd
(B) Sunderam Finance Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. Ltd.
(C) Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meera Vijay
(D) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissari Pvt. Ltd.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court ruled that the High Court erred in concluding that the trial court lacked jurisdiction to entertain the application under Section 9. The court set aside the High Court’s judgment and directed that the respondent’s petition be decided on its merits.
Q34. Which of the following services cannot be provided to the Company by an auditor appointed under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013
Options:
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Actuarial Services
(C) Managerial Services
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013, an auditor cannot provide the following services to a company, its holding company, or its subsidiary company: Accounting and book-keeping services, Internal audit, Design and implementation of financial information systems, Actuarial services, Investment advisory services, Investment banking services, Outsourcing financial services, and Management services.
Q35. Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, any person who teases an animal in a zoo may be punished
Options:
(A) with fine which may extend to 5000
(B) with imprisonment which may extend upto 1 year
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 51(1-B) of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 states that the punishment for violating the provisions of section 38-J is: Imprisonment for up to six months, A fine of up to two thousand rupees, and both imprisonment and a fine.
Q36. The entry on forests and protection of Wild animals and birds was moved from…….to the………. by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India—
Options:
(A) Centre list to State list
(B) Centre list to Concurrent list
(C) State list to Concurrent list
(D) State list to Union list
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved the entry on forests and protection of wild animals and birds from the State List to the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
Q37. Droit des Gens (Law of Nations) 1758 was written by—
Options:
(A) Cornelius van Bynkershoek
(B) Emerich de Vattel
(C) Richard Zouch
(D) Jean Bodin
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Le Droit des Gens (The Law of Nations, 1758) was written by Emer de Vattel (1714-1767), a Swiss jurist and Enlightenment scholar of international law.
Q38. What is true of perpetual injunction
Options:
(A) It is a judicial process
(B) Preventive in nature
(C) The thing prevented is a wrongful act
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A perpetual injunction is a court order that prevents a person or entity from doing something permanently. It is a type of permanent injunction that is granted after a final hearing.
Q39. The provisions of…….do not apply to trade unions registered under the provisions of Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Options:
(A) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
(B) The Companies Act, 1956
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Co-operative Societies Act of 1912 is a law that requires cooperative societies to be registered as legal entities. The act gives registered societies the following rights and responsibilities.
Q40. According to Salmond every legal right:
Options:
(A) Cannot be vested in a person
(B) Is availed against a person upon whom lies the correlative duty
(C) Cannot oblige the person bound to an act or omission in favour of the person entitled
(D) Cannot have a title
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Salmond also defined a legal right as an interest that is protected by a rule of right. He believed that rights and duties are co-existent, and that every right has a corresponding duty.
Q41. The binding force of precedent is destroyed or weakened by:
Options:
(A) Public opinion
(B) Abrogated decision
(C) Res judicata
(D) Lis pendens
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
An abrogated decision is a judicial decision that has lost its binding authority. This can happen when a higher court overrules or reverses the decision, or when a statute or statutory rule that is inconsistent with the decision is enacted.
Q42. Which of the following is true in respect of a Government contract which does not confirm to provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution?
Options:
(A) They are not enforceable in court against the parties
(B) They can be rectified by the Government
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A government contract that does not conform to the provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution is void and unenforceable.
Q43. State Bar Council under the provisions of section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 has the authority to—
Options:
(A) Reprimand the advocate
(B) Suspend the advocate from practice for such period of time as it may deem fit
(C) Remove the name of the advocate from the State roll of advocates
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 35(3) of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council the power to take action against an advocate who has been found guilty of misconduct: Dismiss the complaint, Reprimand the advocate, Suspend the advocate from practicing for a specified period, Remove the advocate’s name from the State roll of advocates.
Q44. Which of the following is untrue regarding qualification for a person to be admitted on the State rolls maintained by State Bar Councils
Options:
(A) The minimum age required is 21 years
(B) He must be an Indian Citizen
(C) He must not have been convicted of an offence involving moral turpitude
(D) They must not have been convicted of an offence under the provisions of the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1958
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
To be admitted as an advocate on a State roll, a person must meet the following conditions: Be a citizen of India, Be at least 21 years old, Have a law degree from a university in India, Have paid stamp duty and enrollment fees, and meet other conditions specified in the rules made by the State Bar Council.
Q45. Time which has begun to run can be stopped in case of:
Options:
(A) Minority
(B) Insanity
(C) Idiocy
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 9 of Limitation Act, 1963 states that — Where once time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it.
Q46. To establish section 34, IPC
Options:
(A) Common Intention must be proved but not overt act is required to be proved.
(B) Common Intention and overt act both are required to be proved
(C) Common intention need not be proved but only overt act is required to be proved.
(D) All of the above.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 states that when multiple people commit a criminal act in furtherance of a common intention, each person is liable for the act as if they were the only persons involved. It is not necessary that the accused persons conspire together and plan their act before committing the offence. A common intention can be formed even during the course of the offence. Common intention doesn’t necessitate explicit discussions or agreements among the co-accused.
Q47. Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the appropriate government can by order in writing
Options:
(A) refer the dispute to a Board for promoting a settlement of the dispute
(B) refer any matter appearing to be relevant to the dispute to a court for inquiry
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 10(1) of the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 allows the appropriate government to refer an industrial dispute to a Labour Court, Tribunal, or National Tribunal. Labour Court: If the dispute is related to a matter in the Second Schedule. Tribunal: If the dispute is related to a matter in the Third Schedule. National Tribunal: If the dispute involves a question of national importance or affects industrial establishments in more than one State.
Q48. Which of the following statement is true for loss of confidence by management in the workman?
Options:
(A) Even when dismissal or discharge is held to be wrongful, the court may not yet order reinstatement if the employer is able to establish that the workman held a position of trust and there was loss of confidence.
(B) Loss of confidence may also be a ground for discharge simpliciter of the workman
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In India, a management can terminate an employee for loss of confidence if they can demonstrate objective facts that indicate the employee is untrustworthy or unreliable. The management must also meet the following three conditions: The employee holds a position of trust and confidence; The employee abuses their position and forfeits the trust and confidence; Continuing to employ the employee would be embarrassing or inconvenient for the employer, or would be detrimental to the security or discipline of the establishment.
Q49. Under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the period of limitation for filing complaint before the National Commission is
Options:
(A) 1 year from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(B) 2 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(C) 3 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
(D) 4 years from the date on which cause of action has arisen
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 is two years from the date the cause of action arises. The District Commission, State Commission, or National Commission will not accept a complaint filed outside of this time frame.
Q50. Grievous hurt under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 means
Options:
(A) Grievous hurt as defined in IPC
(B) Grievous hurt as defined in medical laws
(C) Grievous hurt as detected by medical practitioner
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 has multiple provisions related to grievous hurt and compensation for motor vehicle accidents. Section 161 covers compensation for hit-and-run accidents. The Central Government provides compensation of Rs 50,000 for grievous hurt, or such higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
Q51. A retracted confession
Options:
(A) can be solely made the basis of conviction
(B) cannot be solely made the basis of conviction
(C) cannot be solely made the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
(D) both (A) and (C) are correct
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A retracted confession is a confession that is later withdrawn by the person who made it. In legal proceedings, a retracted confession is generally viewed with caution and courts are hesitant to base a conviction on it alone. However, a retracted confession can be considered by a court if it meets certain criteria: The court is satisfied that the confession was true; the court is satisfied that the confession was voluntarily made; the court finds corroboration in material particulars.
Q52. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of the Evidence Act:
Options:
(A) must relate to the same crime for which offender is charged
(B) may relate to the same crime for which offender is charged
(C) must relate to another crime
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that a confession made to a police officer cannot be used as evidence against a person accused of a crime. This section was added to the Act to protect people from torture by the police, which was a common practice at the time.
Q53. An unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating officer in recording the statement of a material witness would render the evidence of such witness.
Options:
(A) Unreliable
(B) Inadmissible
(C) Inadmissible and unreliable
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The statements of witnesses during investigation should be recorded as promptly as possible. Unjustified and unexplained long delay on the part of the investigating police in recording a statement of a material witness during the investigation may render the evidence of such witness unreliable.
Q54. Recording of pre-summoning evidence may be dispensed with under section 200 of Cr.P.C.
Options:
(A) If the complaint is supported by the affidavit of the complainant
(B) If the complaint is made in writing by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) Only (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Recording of pre-summoning evidence is not dispensed with under Section 200 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.). Section 200 of the Cr.P.C. is about the examination of a complainant by a Magistrate to determine if there is sufficient evidence to take cognizance of the matter.
Q55. Contract without consideration made in writing and registered and made on account of natural love and affection is:
Options:
(A) void
(B) reasonable
(C) valid
(D) unenforceable
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that an agreement without consideration is void, unless it meets certain conditions: it is in writing and registered, it is a promise to compensate for something done, it is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law, it is a contract made on account of natural love and affection between close relatives, and it is a promise to compensate someone who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor.
Q56. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Options:
(A) the salary of a public officer can be transferred
(B) the salary of a public officer cannot be transferred
(C) public office can be transferred
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act of 1882 lists types of property that cannot be transferred, including future maintenance, suing rights, public offices, pensions, personal rights, spes successionis, and property without valid title.
Q57. Where a debt is transferred for the purpose of securing an existing or future debt, the debt so transferred, if received by the transferor or recovered by the transferee is applicable first, in payment of cost of such recovery. This is the provision of:
Options:
(A) mortgaged debt
(B) gift
(C) actionable claim
(D) lease
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 134 of the Transfer of Property Act of 1882 states that when a debt is transferred to secure an existing or future debt, the debt is used in the following ways: Residue (the remaining amount belongs to the transferor or the person entitled to receive it), Costs of recovery (the debt is used to pay for the costs of recovery), and Secured amount (the debt is used to satisfy the amount that is secured by the transfer).
Q58. A suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be brought by:
Options:
(A) trespasser
(B) a tenant holding over
(C) servant
(D) manager
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Suit by person dispossessed of immovable property: If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit.
Q59. Injunction cannot be granted in a suit:
Options:
(A) in which the specific performance cannot be enforced
(B) for breach of negative contract to enforce specific contract
(C) for declaration where the plaintiff is in possession
(D) neither (A), nor (B), nor (C)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Injunction cannot be granted in case of illegal agreements. Since an illegal agreement cannot be enforced at all, there cannot be an injunction in the case of illegal agreement.
Q60. State practice for the formation of customary rule includes: (1) State actions (2) State claims
Options:
(A) only (1)
(B) only (2)
(C) both (1) and (2)
(D) neither (1) nor (2)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
State practice for the formation of customary international law involves a consistent and widespread pattern of State behaviour that is representative and shows a sense of obligation.
Q61. The Controller of Certifying Authorities in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records of: (1) Certifying Authority (2) Cross Certifying Authority (3) Foreign Certifying Authority
Options:
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (1)
(D) (1), (2) and (3)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) in India must maintain a database of the disclosure records of every Certifying Authority (CA). The database must contain details as specified by regulations and must be accessible to the public.
Q62. Under section 37 of the IT Act, 2000, the certifying authority can suspend the digital signature certificate, if: (1) The subscriber is found guilty of malpractice (2) The subscriber is involved in cyber terrorism (3) The subscriber requests for the same (4) In public interest
Options:
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (4)
(D) (4) and (1)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to section 37 of the Information Technology Act (IT Act), 2000, a Certifying Authority (CA) can suspend a Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) if: The subscriber or someone authorized to act on their behalf requests the suspension, and the CA believes the suspension is in the public interest.
Q63. In the cases before Cyber Appellate Tribunal, the appellant:
Options:
(A) Cannot appear in person without a legal practitioner
(B) Cannot authorise a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf
(C) Cannot authorise his officer to appear on his behalf
(D) Cannot authorize his relative who is neither his officer nor a legal practitioner to appear on his behalf
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 59 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 deals with the right to legal representation. It states that an appellant can: Appear in person, and authorize a legal practitioner or an officer to represent them in front of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal.
Q64. In the light of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which of the following statement is/are correct?
Options:
(A) The word “rape” in section 375 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been replaced with sexual assault
(B) Rape is now a gender neutral offence
(C) The amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 16 years
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
No option is correct.
Q65. The offence of stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is:
Options:
(A) Non-cognizable and Bailable
(B) Cognizable and Bailable
(C) Cognizable and Non-bailable
(D) Non-cognizable and Non-bailable
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Stalking is punishable under section 354D of IPC. The offence of Stalking upon second or subsequent conviction is Cognizable and Non-bailable as mentioned in the First Schedule of Cr.P.C.
Q66. In kidnapping, the consent of minor is
Options:
(A) wholly immaterial
(B) partly immaterial
(C) wholly material
(D) partly material
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines kidnapping from lawful guardianship as the act of taking or enticing a minor or person of unsound mind away from their lawful guardian without their consent.
Q67. Under the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926, any person who has attained the age of may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union to the contrary.
Options:
(A) 14 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 21 years
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Any person who has attained the age of fifteen years may be a member of a registered Trade Union subject to any rules of the Trade Union.
Q68. Spurious goods under the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 imply
Options:
(A) Such goods and services which are of poor quality
(B) Such goods and services which are claimed to be genuine but they are actually not so
(C) Such goods and services which might be stolen in nature
(D) Such goods and services which are not usable in nature
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Spurious goods are goods that are fake, imitative, or falsely claimed to be genuine. They often infringe on the copyrights and trademarks of the original goods and are of inferior quality.
Q69. Who is liable to pay compensation in case of death or permanent disablement?
Options:
(A) Owner of the vehicle
(B) State Government
(C) Driver
(D) Insurance Company
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The owner of the vehicle involved in a road accident is liable to pay compensation for death or permanent disablement, irrespective of fault, under Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988. This is known as the ‘no-fault’ liability theory.
Q70. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
Options:
(A) Proceedings before tribunals
(B) Proceedings before the arbitrator
(C) Judicial proceedings in court
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Indian Evidence Act of 1872 applies to all judicial proceedings in India, including courts-martial, except for those convened under the Army Act, the Naval Discipline Act, the Indian Navy (Discipline) Act, 1934, or the Air Force Act. It does not apply to affidavits or proceedings before an arbitrator.
Q71. Fact in issue means
Options:
(A) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties
(B) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
(C) Fact, existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A fact in issue is a fact that is fundamental to a dispute and must be proved by the party with the burden of proof. It is a fact that is either the subject of disagreement between the parties or that one party must prove to the court.
Q72. In a bailable offence bail is granted as a matter of right:
Options:
(A) By the police officer
(B) By the court
(C) Both by the police officer and the court
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Bail in bailable offence: Section 436 provides for the release on bail of a person accused of a bailable offence. Section 436 of Cr.PC is mandatory in nature and the court or the police have no discretion in the matter. Any accused person arrested for a bailable offence willing to provide bail must be released.
Q73. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance:
Options:
(A) within 6 months of attachment
(B) within 2 years of attachment
(C) within 3 years of attachment
(D) within 1 year of attachment
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), if a proclaimed person’s property is attached, the property will be released if the proclaimed person appears within the specified time.
Q74. The question whether a statement was recorded in the course of investigation is a:
Options:
(A) question of law
(B) question of fact
(C) mixed question of law and fact
(D) question of law or fact depends on facts and circumstances
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A question of fact is a legal issue that is resolved by a trier of fact, such as a judge or jury, based on evidence and witness credibility. Questions of fact are often related to the specifics of a case. For example, in a criminal trial, whether the defendant is guilty is a question of fact.
Q75. Where the police submits a final report under section 173(2) of Cr.P.C. for dropping of proceedings to a Magistrate, the Magistrate
Options:
(A) may accept the same
(B) may reject the same
(C) may reject the same and order further investigation
(D) any of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
When a police officer submits a final report under Section 173(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) to a Magistrate for dropping proceedings, the Magistrate has a few options: Accept and drop, Disagree and proceed, and Order further investigation.
Q76. The orders under section 125 of Cr.P.C. are
Options:
(A) summary in nature but finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties
(B) summary in nature and do not finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties which are to be finally determined by a civil court
(C) Substantive in nature and finally determine the rights and obligations of the parties
(D) Substantive in nature and are not subject to determination of a right of the parties by a civil court
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Orders under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) are orders for the maintenance of wives, children, parents, and grandparents. A first-class magistrate can issue such an order if there is evidence of neglect or refusal to provide maintenance.
Q77. A contingent contract based on the specified uncertain events not happening within a fixed time under section 35—
Options:
(A) remains valid even if the event does not happen within that fixed time
(B) becomes void at the expiration of the time fixed
(C) becomes void if the happening of that event becomes impossible before the expiry of time fixed
(D) both (B) and (C)
Correct Answer: (**)
Explanation:
Section 35 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that a contingent contract can be enforced by law if a specified uncertain event does not happen within a fixed time: when the fixed time has expired and the event has not happened, and before the fixed time has expired, if it becomes certain that the event will not happen. If the event becomes impossible, the contract becomes void.
Q78. In cases of general offer, for a valid contract—
Options:
(A) the acceptor need not have the knowledge of the offer
(B) the acceptor must have the knowledge of the offer before acceptance by performance
(C) the acceptor may acquire the knowledge of the offer after the performance of the condition for acceptance
(D) knowledge does not matter so long as the condition is performed with or without knowledge
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The general offer is open for the public at large and the acceptor must have the knowledge of the offer before accepting it.
Q79. Under the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit—
Options:
(A) upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) no such provision is made
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Transfer of Property Act of 1882 states that an unborn person acquires a vested interest in a property transfer if the interest is created for their benefit. This is true unless the transfer’s terms indicate otherwise. The unborn persons may not be able to immediately enjoy the interest, but they do acquire a vested interest when they are born.
Q80. Every transfer of immovable property made with intent to defeat or delay the creditors of the transferor shall be voidable—
Options:
(A) at the option of creditor so defeated or delayed
(B) at the option of debtor
(C) at the option of court
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, any transfer of immovable property made with the intent to delay or defeat the creditors of the transferor is voidable. This means that any creditor who is delayed or defeated by the transfer can choose to make the transfer voidable.
Q81. Where co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each is—
Options:
(A) not jointly and severally liable to the decree holder
(B) jointly and severally liable to the decree holder
(C) jointly lable to the decree holder only
(D) severally liable to the decree holder only
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer case Janakibai v. Rama Manaji Dhangar, AIR 1948 (Nag) 292.
Q82. At sight under section 21 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 means—
Options:
(A) on presentation
(B) on demand
(C) on coming into vision
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
In the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, ‘at sight’ in a promissory note or bill of exchange means on demand.
Q83. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to—
Options:
(A) Suits
(B) Execution
(C) Election petitions
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to appeals and applications that can be accepted after the limitation period has expired.
Q84. Which of the following Companies will have to constitute Corporate Social Responsibility Committee under the Companies Act, 2013
Options:
(A) A Company having a net profit of 2.5 crores in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 800 crores
(B) A Company having a net profit of 3 crores, in a financial year, a net worth of 300 crores and a turnover of rupees 600 crores
(C) A Company having a net profit of 5 crores or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 1000 crores or more
(D) A Company having a net profit of 5 crores or more, a net worth of 500 crores and a turnover of rupees 5000 crores or more
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Companies that meet any of the following criteria in a financial year must establish a Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee under the Companies Act, 2013: Net worth of at least Rs 500 crore, Turnover of at least Rs 1,000 crore, and Net profit of at least Rs 5 crore.
Q85. A disqualified person/heir—
Options:
(A) Transmits an interest to his or her own heir
(B) Transmits no interest to his or her own heir
(C) May or may not transmit an interest to his or her own heir as per the discretion of the court
(D) May only transmit an interest to his or her own heir with the consent of the other heirs.
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer case Budha Kuer v. Mt Sahodra Kuer, AIR 1931 (Pat) 367.
Q86. In cases in which a specific act confers a discretionary power on an authority:
Options:
(A) The court can direct the manner in which the power is exercised
(B) The court can direct that the power be exercised in accordance with law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has ruled that legislation can be challenged if the legislature has excessively delegated power or delegated essential functions.
Q87. The Bar Council of India Rules which stipulated that persons aged 45 years and above could not be enrolled as advocates was struck down by the Supreme Court in:
Options:
(A) E.S. Reddi v. Bar Council of India
(B) Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advise v. Bar Council of India
(C) P. Shanmugam v. Bar Council of India
(D) Legal Committee v. Bar Council of India
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court struck down the Bar Council of India’s rule that people aged 45 and above could not be enrolled as advocates in the case of Indian Council of Legal Aid and Advice vs Bar Council Of. The court ruled that the rule was discriminatory, unreasonable, and arbitrary. It also violated the principle of equality enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution.
Q88. Which is an incorrect statement?
Options:
(A) An Arbitral award is a contract
(B) An Arbitral award must be in writing and signed
(C) An Arbitral award included an interim award.
(D) None of the above.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
An arbitral award is a final and binding decision made by an arbitration tribunal or sole arbitrator on a dispute. It is similar to a judgment in a court of law.
Q89. Which among the following is authorized under the Information Technology Act, 2000 to prescribe the security procedures and practices for the purpose of sections 14 and 15 of the Act?
Options:
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Certifying authority
(D) Issuing authority
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Central Government is authorized to prescribe security procedures and practices for sections 14 and 15 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. When prescribing these procedures, the Central Government must consider the following factors: commercial circumstances, nature of transactions, and other related factors.
Q90. The essential ingredient of the tort of negligence are: (1) When one owes a duty of care towards the other; (2) When one commits a breach of that duty; and (3) The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof. Choose correct response from below:
Options:
(A) None of them are essential ingredients.
(B) Only the first is an essential ingredient.
(C) All of them are essential ingredients
(D) Even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The tort of negligence is a legal concept that describes when someone fails to act with the level of care that a reasonable person would have in a similar situation. It can apply to both individuals and businesses.
Q91. Vicarious liability includes:
Options:
(A) Liability of the principal for the tort of his agent
(B) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant
(C) Liability of the partners for each others tort
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Vicarious liability is a legal doctrine that holds a party responsible for the actions of another party, even if they were not the direct cause of the harm. It is a type of strict liability that is based on the idea that the person who benefits from the actions of another should also be responsible for the potential harm.
Q92. Necessity rule as to admissibility of evidence is applicable when the maker of a statement:
Options:
(A) is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence
(B) is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be procured without unreasonable delay or expenses
(C) is a person who cannot be found
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 32 Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q93. Secondary evidence of a document means:
Options:
(A) copies of the document
(B) oral account of the contents of the documents
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q94. A Will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness:
Options:
(A) when it is registered
(B) when it is unregistered
(C) when it is admitted
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 68 of Evidence Act, 1872 provides that if a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution, if there be an attesting witness alive, and subject to the process of the Court and capable of giving evidence.
Q95. Any person in section 106 of Evidence Act, 1872 refers to—
Options:
(A) a party to the suit
(B) a stranger to the suit
(C) a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to Section 106 of Evidence Act, when any fact is especially within the knowledge of any person, the burden of proving that fact is upon him.
Q96. In a cognizable case under IPC, police have the—
Options:
(A) Authority to arrest a person without warrant
(B) Authority to investigate the offence without permission of the Magistrate
(C) Both (A) or (B)
(D) Either (A) nor (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The police are empowered to make an arrest without a warrant and start the investigation as soon as an FIR is lodged, without any permission from the Magistrate.
Q97. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by—
Options:
(A) any police officer
(B) by the investigating officer
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) either (A) or (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Refer Section 165 of Cr.P.C.
Q98. Commital proceedings under section 209 of Cr.P.C. are in the nature of—
Options:
(A) aid in investigation
(B) inquiry
(C) trial
(D) either inquiry or trial
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 209 of Cr.P.C. provides for the Commitment of case to Court of Session when offence is triable exclusively by it.
Q99. Which is correct?
Options:
(A) proposal + acceptance = promise
(B) promise + consideration = agreement
(C) agreement + enforceability = contract
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Refer Section 2 of Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Q100. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer
Options:
(A) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
(B) when it is put in course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
(C) when the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
(D) all of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Refer Section 4 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 which provides that the communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
