INSTRUCTIONS
• This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions.
• Each question is followed by four options (A), (B), (C), (D).
• The correct answer is highlighted and marked with ✓.
• Detailed explanations are provided after each question.
• Questions marked (**) had disputed/no definitive official answer.
Section 1: Constitutional Law (Q1–15)
Q1. Who can move PIL in High Court and Supreme Court:
(A) Any public spirited person
(B) NGO or Association with public spirit
(C) Group of Public spirited persons who have no personal interest
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Any Indian citizen or organisation can move the court for a public interest/cause by filing a petition.
Q2. Doctrine of ‘Pleasure’ applies to:
(A) Legislative
✓ (B) Civil Servants
(C) Judges
(D) Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Doctrine of Pleasure is embodied in Article 310 of the Constitution.
Q3. Articles of a company can be altered by:
(A) The directors of the company
(B) The officials of the company
(C) Shareholders by passing an ordinary resolution
✓ (D) Shareholders by passing a special resolution
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 14 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with ‘Alteration of articles’.
Q4. Article 361 provides:
(A) Authority to Union Government to dismiss the State Governments
(B) Authority to the State Governments to pass legislation
✓ (C) Protection and immunities to the President and Governors from being prosecuted in Courts
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 361 deals with ‘Protection of President and Governors and Rajpramukhs’.
Q5. Uttering of words with deliberate intention to wound religious sentiments will be dealt with:
✓ (A) Section 298 of IPC
(B) Section 296 of IPC
(C) Section 297 of IPC
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 298 of IPC deals with uttering words, etc., with deliberate intent to wound religious feelings.
Q6. Under Section 320(1), Cr.P.C. for criminal intimidation, which section of IPC is applicable:
(A) 503
(B) 504
(C) 505
✓ (D) 506
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 506 of the IPC deals with the punishment for criminal intimidation. The punishment for criminal intimidation is imprisonment up to two years, or a fine, or both.
Q7. Which of the following is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution Mechanism:
(A) Bar Council of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
✓ (D) Lok Adalat
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Lok Adalat is an innovative form of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanism.
Q8. Which of the following is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor:
(A) Father
✓ (B) Brother
(C) The executor appointed by father
(D) Grand father
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Brother is not a legal guardian of the property of Muslim minor.
Q9. Indian Evidence Act was enacted in:
(A) 1972
✓ (B) 1872
(C) 1955
(D) 1986
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Evidence Act was enacted in the year 1872.
Q10. Which is the correct statement with regard to the professional ethics of a lawyer:
(A) Lawyers have no right to go on strike or give a call for boycott
(B) An advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any illegal or improper means
(C) An advocate abusing the process of the court is guilty and misconduct
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Professional ethics are the obligations that lawyers must uphold in their careers. These ethics are codified to maintain the dignity and integrity of the legal profession, and to hold lawyers accountable for unprofessional behaviour.
Q11. Droite Administration is a system of administration:
✓ (A) French system
(B) British system
(C) American system
(D) Irish system
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Droite Administration is a French system of administration.
Q12. Which Act is covering the Cyber Crimes:
(A) Indian Telecommunication Act
(B) Indian Penal Code
(C) Indian Evidence Act
✓ (D) Information Technology Act
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Information Technology Act was enacted in the year 2000 with an aim to provide legal recognition for transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication.
Q13. The First constitutional amendment was enacted in:
(A) 1950
✓ (B) 1951
(C) 1967
(D) 1975
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The first constitutional amendment in India was enacted in 1951 — The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted by Parliament on June 18, 1951, moved by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
Q14. A person instigates any person to do an offence or illegal act or omission attracts:
✓ (A) Section 107 of IPC
(B) Section 120(B) of IPC
(C) Section 114 of IPC
(D) Section 144 of IPC
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 107 of the IPC defines abetment, which is when someone encourages or helps another person to commit a crime, through instigation, conspiracy, or aiding and illegal omission.
Q15. A landmark Habeas Corpus Petition was filed during emergency, that is in:
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
✓ (D) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer case ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, 1976 SCR 172.
Section 2: Corporate & Business Law (Q16–20)
Q16. Section 24A of Advocates Act, 1961 provides the:
(A) Appointment of Attorney General
(B) Regular attendance at Law College
(C) Admitted for enrolment in Bar or State Roll
(D) Election to State Bar Council
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: Neither of the option is correct as Section 24A of Advocates Act, 1961 deals with ‘Disqualification for enrolment’.
Q17. Under the Companies Act, every person subscribing to the Memorandum of a company must take at least:
(A) 100 shares
(B) 20 shares
(C) 10 shares
✓ (D) 1 share
Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to the Companies Act, every person subscribing to the Memorandum of Association of a company must take at least one share. The MoA is a company’s primary document that contains important information about the company.
Q18. GST came into force from:
(A) 1st January, 2017
(B) 1st April, 2017
✓ (C) 1st July, 2017
(D) 1st August, 2017
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The GST that came into force on 1st July, 2017 would completely transform the Indirect Taxation in the country involving both the Central and State levies.
Q19. Examination in Chief is conducted by the:
(A) Chief Examiner of the court
(B) A lawyer appointed by the accused
(C) A lawyer appointed by the Government
(D) Presiding Judge in the court
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: The party who calls a witness conducts the examination-in-chief. The examination-in-chief is when the party that called the witness asks questions to elicit answers that support the story in the written statement or plaint.
Q20. The convention of Climate Change was the outcome of:
(A) The Stockholm Conference
(B) The Nairobi Conference
(C) The Vienna Conference
✓ (D) The Rio De Janeiro Conference
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted in 1992 as a result of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee for a Framework Convention on Climate Change’s Fifth session.
Section 3: Taxation & Revenue Law (Q21–21)
Q21. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is defined under:
(A) Wealth Tax Act, 1957
(B) GST
✓ (C) Income Tax Act, 1961
(D) Finance Act, 1992
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 139A Income Tax Act, 1961 defines the term ‘Permanent Account Number’.
Section 4: Personal & Family Law (Q22–22)
Q22. A marriage with a woman before completion of her iddat is……..
✓ (A) Irregular
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Iddat is described as a period during which a woman is prohibited from marrying again after the dissolution of her first marriage. A marriage prohibited on the ground of iddat is irregular according to the Sunni law, but under the Shia law it is void.
Section 5: Civil Procedure Code (Q23–23)
Q23. Section 10 of the CPC provides for:
✓ (A) Stay of the suit
(B) Summoning witness
(C) Examination of witness
(D) Sentencing the judgment
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 10 of CPC provides for ‘Stay of the suit’.
Section 6: Evidence Law (Q24–24)
Q24. Who is prevented from being testified u/s. 118 of Indian Evidence Act:
(A) A lunatic who cannot understand the questions put to him
(B) Extreme old age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
(C) A tender age person who cannot give rational answer to the questions
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: As per Section 118 of Evidence Act, All persons shall be competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers to those questions, by tender years, extreme old age, disease, whether of body or mind, or any other cause.
Section 7: Constitutional Decisions (Q25–25)
Q25. Supreme Court decided in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India:
✓ (A) Relating to the President Rule in State
(B) Relating to the illegal detention
(C) Relating to the right to clean environment
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 1994 Supreme Court of India judgment in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India was a landmark decision that placed restrictions on the President’s power to dismiss State Governments.
Section 8: Environmental Law (Q26–26)
Q26. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification was issued by the Central Government in:
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
✓ (C) 1991
(D) 1997
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Coastal Regulation Zone notification was issued by the Central Government in 1991.
Section 9: Guardianship & Labour Law (Q27–30)
Q27. Who is lawful guardian:
(A) A person who in law represents the minor
(B) A person who has been appointed by the Court
(C) A person who has been authorised to represent an unmarried daughter
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A lawful guardian is a person who is legally responsible for the care and custody of a minor or another person.
Q28. Who is a protected workman:
(A) Workman given police protection during labour strike
(B) Workman protected by insurance coverage
✓ (C) Workman who is an executive or office bearer of a registered trade union in the establishment
(D) Workman protected from being arrested by a Court order
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A protected workman is a worker who is recognized as such by their employer after a written request from a registered trade union. Protected workmen have a privileged status during industrial disputes.
Q29. A trademark is a visual symbol applied to articles of commerce with a view to distinguish the articles from other. It is in the form of:
(A) A word
(B) A device
(C) A label
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A trademark is a visual symbol that can be in the form of a word, phrase, symbol, design, or a combination of these things.
Q30. The Indian Legal system has evolved a new technique of Alternate Dispute Resolution which is popularly known as Lok Adalat. It owes its origin to the statutory recognition by passing of:
(A) Legal Services Corporation Act, 1974
(B) Legal Aid and Advice Act, 1949
✓ (C) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
(D) None
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Chapter VI of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 deals with Lok Adalat.
Section 10: Civil & Criminal Law (Q31–50)
Q31. Shah Bano case was related to:
(A) Dowry demand
(B) Harassment at work place
✓ (C) Maintenance of divorced Muslim women
(D) Triple divorce of Muslim Women
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985), commonly referred to as the Shah Bano case, was a controversial maintenance lawsuit in India, in which the Supreme Court delivered a judgment favouring maintenance given to an aggrieved divorced Muslim woman.
Q32. Who is garnishee:
✓ (A) A third party who is instructed by way of legal notice to surrender money to settle a debt or claim
(B) A borrower arrested for defaulting
(C) A person who cannot repay a bank loan
(D) A person who mortgaged his farm land
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Garnishee means a third party who, while not involved in a court case between a debtor and a creditor or a defendant and a plaintiff, is required by a court order (garnishee order) to seize money belonging to the debtor and transfer it to the creditor or plaintiff until a debt or claim is satisfied.
Q33. Under section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 which of the following officers is empowered to refer the matter to the Court:
(A) The Tahsildar
(B) The Sub-Collector
(C) The Deputy Collector
✓ (D) The Collector
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the Collector is the only officer who can refer a matter to the court.
Q34. For Specific Performance of a contract, suit is to be instituted in:
✓ (A) 3 years
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) No specific time limit unless mentioned in the contract
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 54 of Schedule of Limitation Act, 1963 provides that for Specific Performance of a Contract the limitation period is 3 years.
Q35. Definition of complainant is described in Consumer Protection Act under section:
✓ (A) Section 2(1)(b)
(B) Section 20
(C) Section 21
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 2(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 defines the term ‘complainant’.
Q36. Which of the following deals with plaint in interpleader-suits in the Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Order 12, Rule 1
(B) Order 17, Rule 10
(C) Order 33, Rule 18
✓ (D) Order 35, Rule 1
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Rule 1 of Order 35 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) states that in an interpleader suit, the plaintiff must declare that they have no interest in the subject-matter of the dispute other than for costs or charges.
Q37. The Family courts have concurrent jurisdiction to pass a decree for dissolution of marriage under the Indian Divorce Act. In which case the order was passed:
(A) Handa v. Handa (AIR 1955)
✓ (B) Dr. Mary v. Dr. Vincent (AIR 1991)
(C) Peter v. Anglina (AIR 1992)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Refer case Dr. Mary Sheila v. Dr. Vincent Thamburaj, AIR 1991 (Mad) 180.
Q38. Punishment for Advocates for misconduct is defined in Advocates Act, 1961 by:
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 33
✓ (C) Section 35
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 35 Advocates Act, 1961 deals with Punishment of advocates for misconduct.
Q39. Which one is a case of public interest:
(A) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Minerva Mills v. Union of India, AIR 1980
(C) Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Vardichand, AIR 1980
(D) All the above
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: No specific option is definitively marked as correct. All listed options may qualify as cases involving public interest in various respects.
Q40. Under section 239 of Cr.P.C., the Magistrate can:
(A) Frame charges against the accused person
✓ (B) Discharge the accused if charges are groundless
(C) Open trial for evidence
(D) Convict the accused if pleaded guilty
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Under Section 239 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), a Magistrate can discharge an accused and record the reasons for doing so if they consider the charges against the accused to be groundless.
Q41. Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinances:
✓ (A) When the State legislature is not in session
(B) During the course of legislature session
(C) On the recommendation of the State cabinet
(D) With the permission of the Union government
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 213 deals with Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature.
Q42. A person arrested should not be detained more than:
(A) 48 hours
✓ (B) 24 hours
(C) 14 days
(D) 90 days
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 57 of Cr.P.C. provides ‘Person arrested not to be detained more than twenty-four hours’.
Q43. Who of the following Muslim is not entitled to maintenance:
(A) Son who is a minor
(B) Daughter who is not married
(C) Grand parents
✓ (D) An illegitimate son
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Muslim law, an illegitimate son is not entitled to maintenance.
Q44. In civil cases Indian Evidence Act bestows burden of proof on:
✓ (A) The Petitioner
(B) The Respondents
(C) The State Government
(D) The Court
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with the general burden of proof in a suit or proceeding. The section states that the burden of proof lies on the person who would lose if no evidence was presented on either side.
Q45. In which of the following section of 59, Cr.P.C., the discharge of the arrested person by a police officer can take place?
(A) On his own bond
(B) On bail
(C) Under special order of the Magistrate
✓ (D) All of them
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 59, Cr.P.C. provides that no person who has been arrested by a police officer shall be discharged except on his own bond, or on bail, or under the special order of a Magistrate.
Q46. Meaning of Industrial Dispute according to the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is:
(A) Dispute between employers and employers
(B) Dispute between employers and workman
(C) Dispute between workmen and workmen in connection with employment and non-employment
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 2(k) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 defines an industrial dispute as any disagreement between employers and employees, or between employees, that is connected to employment: employment or non-employment, terms of employment, and conditions of labour.
Q47. English case Rylands v. Fletcher laid down a very important rule:
(A) Absolute liability
(B) Vicarious liability
(C) Indirect liability
(D) Financial liability
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: The rule laid down in Rylands v. Fletcher is known as the rule of ‘Strict Liability’ which means liability without fault.
Q48. Which of the following is not an essential for a valid sale:
(A) The parties must be competent to contract
(B) There must be mental consent
(C) There must be a transfer of property
✓ (D) There must be an agreement to sell
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A valid sale requires: transfer of ownership, consideration, competent parties, and offer and acceptance. An ‘agreement to sell’ is a preliminary step — not the completed sale itself.
Q49. ‘Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of Law.’ In which case Supreme Court made this remark:
(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
✓ (C) D.K. Basu v. State of Bengal
(D) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer case D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997) 1 SCC 416.
Q50. Doctrine of ‘LIS PENDENS’ is given under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Section 41
✓ (B) Section 52
(C) Section 53
(D) Section 53A
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Doctrine of ‘LIS PENDENS’ is dealt with under Section 52 of TPA.
Section 11: International & Personal Law (Q51–60)
Q51. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of International Law?
(A) It is a true law
(B) It has vertical structure
(C) It has well established institutes of governance
✓ (D) It has formal law enforcing agencies
Answer: (D)
Explanation: International law, also known as public international law or the law of nations, has several characteristics including voluntary compliance and lack of central enforcement.
Q52. Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of spouse:
✓ (A) This statement is true under Sunni law
(B) This statement is not true
(C) Deferred mahr is payable only at the time of divorce
(D) Deferred mahr payable only at the time of death of the spouse.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Deferred mahr is payable at the time of divorce or at the time of death of a spouse in Muslim law.
Q53. Dying declaration must be made by:
(A) The dying person in hospital
(B) The doctor who is treating the deceased in hospital
✓ (C) The deceased before death
(D) Nearest relative of the deceased
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The provisions relating to dying declaration are dealt with under Section 32(1) of Evidence Act.
Q54. Judgment should be delivered to the parties or to their pleaders in the open Court:
(A) By delivering the whole of the judgment
(B) By reading out the whole of the judgment
(C) By reading out the operative part of the judgment
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: In criminal courts, the presiding officer must pronounce the judgment in open court immediately after the trial ends or at a later time when notice is given to the parties or their pleaders. In civil courts, the court must pronounce the judgment in open court as soon as possible.
Q55. Which of the following deals with the evidence for prosecution?
✓ (A) Section 242, Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 264, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 237, Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 235, Cr.P.C.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 242, Cr.P.C. deals with Evidence for Prosecution.
Q56. Abetting the Commission of Suicide is given under—
(A) Section 9 of IPC
(B) Section 8 of IPC
(C) Section 7 of IPC
✓ (D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 306 of IPC provides for Abetment of suicide.
Q57. Recovery of specific immovable property is defined under—
✓ (A) Section 5 of Specific Relief Act
(B) Section 120(B) of IPC
(C) Under Section 10 of Sale of Goods Act
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The recovery of specific immovable property is defined under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act of 1963. Section 5 states that a person who is entitled to the possession of a specific immovable property can recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Q58. Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 deals with:
(A) Revision petition in division bench of High Court
(B) Appeal in Supreme Court
(C) Return of Wealth Tax
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 29 of the Wealth Tax Act, 1957 deals with Appeal to Supreme Court.
Q59. The Collector shall under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, given immediate………….. of any correction made in the award to all the persons included:
(A) Approval
(B) Stay
(C) Announcement
✓ (D) Notice
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, the Collector must immediately notify all interested parties of any corrections made to an award.
Q60. “A” is at work with a hatchet: the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. If there was no want of a proper caution on the part of A, his act is excusable and not an offence. It is contained in:
✓ (A) Section 80 of IPC
(B) Section 84 of IPC
(C) Section 81 of IPC
(D) Section 85 of IPC
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 80 of the IPC states that an act is not considered an offence if it was done by accident or misfortune, without criminal intent or knowledge. This applies to acts that are done lawfully, with proper care and caution.
Section 12: PILs & Cyber Law (Q61–62)
Q61. Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. Union of India (1995) 1 SCC 14. In this PIL which issue was exposed before the court:
✓ (A) The plight of some domestic maids who were sexually assaulted by army men
(B) Abolition of Child Labour
(C) Unemployment of domestic servants in Delhi
(D) Poor Salary of maid servants
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Refer Case Delhi Domestic Working Women Forum v. Union of India (1995) 1 SCC 14.
Q62. Which chapter of Cyber Law provides the legal recognition to Digital Signature:
✓ (A) Chapter III
(B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter IX
(D) Chapter IX and X
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Information Technology Act (IT Act) of 2000 in India provides legal recognition to digital signatures under Section 5.
Section 13: Procedural Law (Q63–75)
Q63. The FIR gives information of:
(A) Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry conducted by a Police Officer
(B) Report submitted to the court by the investigation officer in a criminal case
✓ (C) The commission of a cognizable crime
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A First Information Report (FIR) is a written document that contains information about a cognizable offence.
Q64. Control over with Subordinate Courts shall be vested in the:
✓ (A) High Court
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The High Court has control over subordinate courts in India, as per Article 235 of the Constitution of India.
Q65. Section 34 of the CPC provides:
(A) The Payment of fine imposed by the Court
(B) Payment of compensation to the other party
✓ (C) Payment of interest
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 34 of CPC deals with ‘interest’.
Q66. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it expects to receive is called:
(A) Coercive question
(B) Confusing question
(C) Misleading question
(D) Rhetoric question
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: Neither of the option is correct. As per Section 141 of Evidence Act, any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called a leading question.
Q67. According to clauses (i), (ii) and (iii) of section 145 of the Code of Civil Procedure, a surety:
(A) May render himself personally liable
(B) He may only give a charge upon his property
(C) He may undertake a personal liability and charge his property as further charge
✓ (D) All of these
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 145 of the Civil Procedure Code.
Q68. Section 49 of Factories Act, 1948 explains about:
(A) Canteen
(B) Creche
✓ (C) Welfare officer
(D) Rest room
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 49 of Factories Act, 1948 explains about the Welfare Officer.
Q69. The word ‘case’ used in Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure is of wide importance:
(A) It means any state of facts juridically considered
(B) It includes civil proceedings other than suits and is not restricted to anything contained in the section to the entirety of the proceedings in a civil court
✓ (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The word ‘case’ is of wide importance in Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), covering both revisional jurisdiction and correcting jurisdictional errors.
Q70. ‘A’ finds a purse with money not knowing to whom it belongs, he afterwards discovers that it belongs to ‘B’ and appropriates to his own use. ‘A’ is guilty of:
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Cheating
✓ (C) Criminal misappropriation
(D) Theft
Answer: (C)
Explanation: This question is the illustration (e) of Explanation 2 of Section 403 of IPC.
Q71. The words ‘is not possessed of sufficient means’ in Order 33 Rule 1 refer:
(A) To dower debt due by the petitioner’s husband
✓ (B) To property over which petitioner has actual control
(C) To sufficient property and excludes sole means of livelihoods
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A person is considered indigent if they don’t have enough means to pay the court fee for a suit, or if they don’t have property worth one thousand rupees (excluding exempt property or subject-matter of the suit).
Q72. Section 22B of Legal Services Authorities Act empower the Central and State Authorities to:
(A) Abolish Lok Adalat
(B) Works of Lok Adalat
(C) Powers of Lok Adalat or Permanent Lok Adalat
✓ (D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 22B of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 allows the Central and State Authorities to establish Permanent Lok Adalats.
Q73. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees or orders, etc. can be corrected:
(A) Under Section 151 of CPC
✓ (B) Under Section 152 of CPC
(C) Under Section 153 of CPC
(D) Under Section 153A of CPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 152 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 allows a court to correct clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, decrees, or orders.
Q74. Any confessional statement by the accused given to the Magistrate is:
✓ (A) Admissible
(B) Not admissible
(C) Challengeable
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 28 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that a confession is relevant if it was made after the impression caused by a threat, inducement, or promise has been fully removed.
Q75. Supreme Court has decided in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, that:
(A) Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution
(B) Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution
✓ (C) Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution but not to alter the basic structure and basic feature of the Constitution
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer case Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 (SC) 1461.
Section 14: Criminal Procedure & Constitution (Q76–85)
Q76. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, police can arrest an accused without warrant?
(A) Section 40
✓ (B) Section 41
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 37
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 41 of Cr.P.C. deals with when police may arrest without warrant.
Q77. Financial Relations between the State and Centre are defined in Constitution:
(A) Between Articles 245-255
(B) Between Articles 256-263
✓ (C) Between Articles 264 to 293
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Financial relations between the Centre and State are defined under Articles 264-293 of the Constitution.
Q78. Mahatma Gandhiji was jailed and prosecuted by British regime in 1922 at Ahmedabad u/s. 124A of IPC for:
(A) Calling Hartal
(B) Breaching public peace and tranquility
✓ (C) Sedition and disaffection to the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 124A of the IPC deals with sedition, or the act of inciting hatred or contempt towards the Government of India.
Q79. Police can seek a bond for good behaviour u/ss. 109 and 110 of Cr.P.C. from:
(A) Habitual offenders
(B) White collar criminals
(C) Jail inmates
(D) None of the above
Answer: Disputed / No official answer
Explanation: Section 109 of Cr.P.C. deals with Security for good behaviour from suspected persons whereas Section 110 of Cr.P.C. deals with Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders.
Q80. Dayabhaga school Presumes that ‘a family because it is joint possesses joint property’?
(A) This statement is correct
(B) This presumption is under Mitakshara School
✓ (C) This statement is incorrect
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Dayabhaga school features individual ownership, with property owned by the individual during their lifetime and inherited by succession after their death.
Q81. An appeal against order passed under section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in:
(A) The High Court
✓ (B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Central Government
(D) Not Appealable
Answer: (B)
Explanation: An appeal against an order passed under section 27 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 by the National Commission lies in the Supreme Court of India. The appeal must be filed within 30 days from the date of the order.
Q82. Which is the body that award punishments to the advocates for misconduct?
(A) Ethics Committee
(B) Professional Development Committee
✓ (C) Disciplinary Committee
(D) High Court
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer Section 35 of Advocates Act, 1961.
Q83. Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalises:
✓ (A) Process of Conciliation
(B) Process of Arbitration
(C) Enforcement of Foreign awards under New York and Geneva Conventions
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Part III of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 formalizes the process of Conciliation.
Q84. Separation of judiciary from Executive is guaranteed in Constitution under Article:
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 48A
✓ (D) 50
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 50 states that the State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
Q85. In camera trial is conducted in the cases charged under section:
(A) 302, IPC
(B) 307, IPC
✓ (C) 376, IPC
(D) 498A, IPC
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 327 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) deals with the conduct of trials for rape and other offences in camera.
Section 15: Torts, Labour & Limitation Law (Q86–100)
Q86. In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of combination must be to:
(A) Violate legal right of the victim
✓ (B) Cause damage to the victim
(C) Obtain benefit for the combiners
(D) Perfect the interest of combiners
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In the tort of conspiracy, the purpose of the combination must be to cause damage to the victim.
Q87. Cancellation of the instrument is mentioned in:
(A) Sections 8-25 of the Specific Relief Act
(B) Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act
✓ (C) Sections 31-33 of the Specific Relief Act
(D) Sections 36-42 of the Specific Relief Act
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Chapter V, i.e., Sections 31-33 of the SRA deals with Cancellation of Instrument.
Q88. Unfair labour practice by the employers:
(A) Victimization
(B) False implication in criminal case
(C) Untrue allegations of absence without leave
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer Fifth Schedule of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
Q89. A suit for compensation for false imprisonment, the period of limitation is:
(A) 3 years from the date of sentencing the judgment
(B) 3 years from the date of release from imprisonment
(C) 3 years from the date of commencing the imprisonment
✓ (D) 1 year when the imprisonment ends
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The period of limitation for a suit for compensation for false imprisonment is one year from the date the imprisonment ends. This is as per Article 73 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963.
Q90. Rule of Law is defined by:
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) Sir John Salmond
✓ (C) A.V. Dicey
(D) Prof. Aristotle
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A.V. Dicey stated three principles to the term ‘Rule of Law’.
Q91. What is the time prescribed for filing of FIR:
(A) Within 24 hours
(B) within 48 hours
(C) Within 14 days of the offence
✓ (D) No time limit is specified
Answer: (D)
Explanation: There is no time limit to file FIR, but it is better to file at the earliest, so that witness and evidences do not get tampered with.
Q92. Which of the following is true of rules framed by the Supreme Court with reference to appeals to it?
(A) They are a special law within section 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) They must take precedence over section 114 or Order 47
✓ (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 145 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to make rules with reference to appeals to it and the Supreme Court, in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 145, has made the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
Q93. Which section of Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with anticipatory breach of contract:
(A) Section 50
(B) Section 65
✓ (C) Section 60
(D) Section 70
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 60 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with the repudiation of a contract before the delivery date.
Q94. Criminal proceedings against the infringer is enabled in the Copyright Act by invoking the provisions:
(A) Sections 13-16
(B) Sections 17-27
✓ (C) Sections 63-70
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Chapter XIII i.e. Sections 63-70 of the Copyright Act deals with Offences.
Q95. Which section of Indian Registration Act, 1908 provides with compulsory registration of Instrument of Gifts and Immovable Properties:
(A) Section 11
(B) Section 13
✓ (C) Section 17
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 17(1)(A) of the Registration Act, 1908 is about the registration of gifts of immovable property.
Q96. State Government’s power to control the road transport is provided in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 under section—
✓ (A) 67 of MV Act, 1988
(B) 68 of MV Act, 1988
(C) 69 of MV Act, 1988
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 67 of the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 gives the State Government the power to control road transport.
Q97. Which is not a Private Right?
(A) Right to Property
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Rights to Education
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Right to Property is a Constitutional Right. Whereas Right to Freedom and Right to Education are Fundamental Rights.
Q98. Which one of the following is true of summons under Section 61, Cr.P.C.?
(A) It is milder form of process
(B) It is for appearance
(C) It is for producing documents or things
✓ (D) All of them
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 61 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 covers the following topics: Summons form (must be in writing, in duplicate, signed by the presiding officer, and bear the court’s seal) and maximum detention period.
Q99. The Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab is a leading case on:
(A) Dying Declaration
(B) Admission
(C) Confession
✓ (D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Kashmira Singh v. State of Punjab, 1978 SCR(1) 385 is related to conviction of accused under section 302/34, IPC. This judgement is considered a landmark, as the Supreme Court provided interpretation of the law pertaining to the grant of bail.
Q100. What is main objective of Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act?
(A) Recovery of stolen property
(B) Recovery of seized vehicles from RTO
✓ (C) Recovery of the cheque amount in case cheque issued by the payer is bounced
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The main objective of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (NI Act) is to make the drawer of a cheque liable for prosecution if the cheque is dishonoured.
