Q1. The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section…..of the Evidence Act, 1872
Options:
(A) 107
(B) 108
(C) 207
(D) 115
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The presumption of continuance of life is contained in Section 107 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This section states that if it is shown that a person was alive within 30 years, the burden of proving that they are dead is on the person who claims it.
Q2. Testimony of a witness to the existence or non-existence of the fact or facts in issue is/are
Options:
(A) Oral evidence
(B) Original evidence
(C) Direct evidence
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A witness’s testimony about the existence or non-existence of a fact in issue is considered direct evidence. Direct evidence is considered to be evidence about the main point in contention and is also known as positive evidence.
Q3. Amendments made in the year……. through the insertion of Section….. to the Civil Procedure Code introduced provisions to enable the courts to refer pending cases to arbitration, conciliation and mediation to facilitate early and amicable resolution of disputes.
Options:
(A) 1989, 98
(B) 1990, 88
(C) 1999, 89
(D) 2001, 88
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) Amendment Act, 1999, and Section 89 of the CPC allow for the settlement of disputes outside of court through alternative dispute resolution (ADR) methods.
Q4. The Companies Act of 1956 accords recognition only to accounting standards whereas under Section 2(7) of the Companies Act of 2013 the recognition is accorded to both accounting and………. standards.
Options:
(A) Financing
(B) Auditing
(C) Business
(D) Responsibility
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Auditing is the process of reviewing a company’s financial records and business processes to ensure accuracy and compliance with accounting standards.
Q5. Companies Act, 2013 allows the formation of
Options:
(A) Two persons’ company only
(B) Seven persons’ company only
(C) Two or more persons’ company only
(D) One person company also
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The One Person Company (OPC) is a business structure in India that was introduced by the Companies Act of 2013. It allows a single person to form a company that has the benefits of both a sole proprietorship and a traditional company.
Q6. Special Summons under Section 206 of the Criminal Procedure Code can be issued by
Options:
(A) A Magistrate only
(B) A Magistrate as well as the Court of Sessions
(C) The Court of Sessions
(D) The High Court
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A Magistrate can issue a special summons under Section 206 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) in cases of petty offences.
Q7. Pigeon Hole theory was proposed by
Options:
(A) Winfield
(B) Salmond
(C) Black Stone
(D) Lord Knight
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The pigeon hole theory was propounded by Salmond, a New Zealand judge, public servant, and legal scholar. The theory is a fundamental principle of tort law liability that states that only well-defined wrongs should be considered torts, torts should be confined to a small box or pigeon hole, the plaintiff must establish that the wrong falls under a specific identified tort, and there is no scope for the evolution of a new tort.
Q8. According to Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 no person under the age of……years shall drive a motor vehicle in any public place
Options:
(A) 20
(B) 156
(C) 18
(D) 21
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, no person under the age of 18 years shall drive a motor vehicle in any public place.
Q9. According to The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 what is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint
Options:
(A) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(B) 2 years from which the article was purchased
(C) 3 years
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
According to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, the limitation period for filing a complaint with the District Forum, State Commission, or National Commission is two years from the date the cause of action arises. However, a complaint can be filed after the two-year period if the complainant can show that they had a sufficient reason for not filing it on time.
Q10. Any person aggrieved by an order made by the District forum may prefer an appeal against such order to the….. within a period of ………days from the date of the order.
Options:
(A) State Commission, 30
(B) State Tribunal, 30
(C) State Forum, 30
(D) State Commission, 60
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 15 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 deals with appeals. Any person who is aggrieved by an order made by the District Forum can appeal to the State Commission within 30 days of the order. The appeal must be filed in the prescribed form and manner.
Q11. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission was constituted in the year
Options:
(A) 1998
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) was established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. The NCDRC is a quasi-judicial body that aims to provide quick and affordable resolution to consumer disputes.
Q12. A sees B running away from a room and afterwards sees C lying down in a pool of blood in the same room. A’s evidence in as far as seeing B running away is direct but as far as the murder is concerned, it is a _
Options:
(A) Primary evidence
(B) Circumstantial evidence
(C) Real evidence
(D) Substantial evidence
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Circumstantial evidence is evidence that points to the existence of a fact, rather than directly proving it. It is used to establish circumstances that can be used to make assumptions about other evidence.
Q13. A statement made by an accused person before the trial begins, by which he admits to have committed the offence, but which he repudiates at the trial is known as
Options:
(A) Extra-judicial confession
(B) Judicial confession
(C) Retracted confession
(D) Voluntary confession
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
A retracted confession is a confession that is withdrawn or recanted by the person who made it. In legal proceedings, courts are generally cautious about using a retracted confession as the sole basis for a conviction.
Q14. Expert opinion under Section 45 is
Options:
(A) A conclusive proof
(B) Not a conclusive proof
(C) Supportive and corroborative in nature
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 covers the admissibility of expert opinions in legal proceedings. This section is important in cases where the court needs to form an opinion on a technical or complex matter that is beyond the average person’s understanding.
Q15. …….. of the Companies Act, 2013 requires disclosure in the prospectus of names and addresses of CFO about sources of promoters contribution among other things.
Options:
(A) Section 36
(B) Section 37
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 38
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires that the prospectus of a public company includes the names and addresses of the company’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO).
Q16. Section 253 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with
Options:
(A) Determination of Sickness
(B) Liability of Directors
(C) Promoters
(D) Memorandum
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 253 of the Companies Act 2013 deals with determining whether a company is sick.
Q17. If by imposing solitary confinement there is total deprivation of comraderie (friendship) amongst co-prisoners coming and taking and being talked to, it would offend Article 21 of the Constitution. The liberty to move, mix, mingle, talk, share company with co-prisoners if substantially curtailed would be violative of Article 21. This was held in the case of —
Options:
(A) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration, AIR 1978 (SC) 1675
(B) Kishore Singh v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1981 (SC) 625
(C) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, AIR 1997 (SC) 610
(D) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, AIR 1989, (SC) 2039
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration case was a landmark judgment that addressed the rights of prisoners in India. The case highlighted the poor treatment of prisoners, including torture and sexual abuse, and the need for reforms in prison management.
Q18. In State of Karnataka v. Union of India, AIR 1978 (SC) 68, Appointment of a commission by the Union Government under Section 3(1) of the Commission of Inquiry Act (60 of 1952) to look into the charges of corruption, etc. against the Chief Minister and other Ministers of a State was challenged. It was held,
Options:
(A) Arbitrary under Article 14
(B) Violates federal principle
(C) Jurisdiction of the Court is ousted and hence violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution
(D) Federal Structure is not jeopardized
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The 1978 Supreme Court case State of Karnataka v. Union of India was a dispute about the relationship between the Central and State Governments in India. The case centered on the powers of the Central Government under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, which allows the Central Government to take control of a State if the State’s constitutional machinery fails.
Q19. Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be “cribbed, cabined and confined” within traditional and doctrinaire limits. From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies. This was stated in the case of —
Options:
(A) Jespar & Slong v. State of Meghalaya, AIR 2004 (SC) 3533
(B) Vajravelu Mudiliar v. Special Dy Collector, AIR 1965 (SC) 1017
(C) E.P. Royappa v. State of T.N., AIR 1974 (SC) 555
(D) Punjab Communication Ltd. v. Union of India, 1999 (4) SCC 727
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The statement ‘Equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and dimensions and it cannot be cribbed, cabined and confined within traditional and doctrinaire limits. From a positivistic point of view, equality is antithetic to arbitrariness. In fact equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies’ was stated in the case of E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu, 1974.
Q20. Which Section under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 discusses about the rights and liabilities of buyer and seller of immovable property?
Options:
(A) 45
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 44
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 55 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (TPA) discusses the rights and liabilities of buyers and sellers of immovable property.
Q21. Identify the wrong statement from the following:
Options:
(A) An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor.
(B) In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is secondary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is primary and arises when the principal debtor defaults.
(C) The Indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
(D) In a contract of indemnity the liability of the indemnifier is secondary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee the liability of surety is primary and arises when the principal debtor defaults.
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A contract of indemnity is a legal agreement where one party promises to protect the other from any losses that may occur due to the actions of the promisor or another person. The word ‘indemnity’ means ‘protection against loss’.
Q22. Which is true of contracts of agency?
Options:
(A) The relation between the agent and the principal is of a trust
(B) It is only when a person acts as a representative of the other in the creation, modification or termination of contractual obligations; between that order and third persons that he is an agent.
(C) The only essence of a contract of agency is the agent’s representative capacity.
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A contract of agency is a legal agreement where a person, called the principal, hires another person, called the agent, to act on their behalf. The agent acts as an extension of the principal’s authority, and the contract establishes a fiduciary relationship between the two parties.
Q23. Point out an example not related to a contract of bailment
Options:
(A) Delivering a watch or radio for repair
(B) Leaving a car or scooter at a parking stand
(C) Leaving luggage in a cloak room
(D) A shareholder executes an agreement/bond favouring the company thereby agreeing to satisfy the company for any loss caused as a consequence of his own
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
According to the Indian Contract Act of 1872, a bailment is when one person gives goods to another for a specific purpose, with the understanding that the goods will be returned or disposed of when the purpose is complete.
Q24. A corporate resolution is not an offer unless efforts are made to communicate it. Which case held so
Options:
(A) Blair v. Western Mutual Benefit Association
(B) R. v. Dawood
(C) Harvela Investments Ltd. v. Royal Trust Co. of Canada
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
A corporate resolution is a legally binding document that outlines the decisions and actions of a company’s board of directors. It is not an offer unless efforts are made to communicate it.
Q25. Selvi’s daughter Kavita had married Shivakumar of a different caste against the wishes of her family. Shivakumar was brutally killed in 2004, and Selvi and two others became the suspects. Since the prosecution’s case depended entirely on circumstantial evidence, it sought the court’s permission to conduct polygraphy and brain-mapping tests on the three persons. The court granted permission and the tests were conducted. When the results of the polygraphy test indicated signs of deception, the prosecution sought the court’s permission to perform narcoanalysis on the three persons. The Magistrate directed the three to undergo narcoanalysis. All of them challenged this decision in the Karnataka High Court, but failed to get relief. They then went in appeal to the Supreme Court. The Court held
Options:
(A) Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution.
(B) Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were valid under Articles 20(3) and 21 of the Constitution.
(C) Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 20(1) and 21 of the Constitution.
(D) Compulsory brain-mapping and polygraph tests and narcoanalysis were in violation of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
No, brain-mapping, polygraph, and narcoanalysis tests cannot be conducted on an accused without their consent, as ruled by the Supreme Court of India in 2010. The court ruled that these tests violate the right against self-incrimination and the right to personal liberty and privacy.
Q26. According to Article 71, Disputes arising in connection with the elections of a President or Vice-President are to be enquired into and decided by
Options:
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) Both by High Court and Supreme Court
(D) Tribunal established for that purpose
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.
Q27. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 regulates…..
Options:
(A) The discharge of hazardous pollutants into the nation’s surface water.
(B) The emission of hazardous air pollutants.
(C) Waste disposal of sea.
(D) The transportation of hazardous materials.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 regulates water pollution and the maintenance of water quality in India. The Act was enacted under Article 252 of the Indian Constitution.
Q28. It was held by the Supreme Court that noise pollution beyond permissible limits cannot be tolerated, even if such noise was a direct result of and was connected with religious activities in the case of
Options:
(A) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(B) Church of God (Full Gospel) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare Association
(C) Rural Enlightenment Kendra v. Union of India
(D) Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Constitution has given religious institutions fundamental right to practice, profess and propagate. But the Court held that undisputedly no religion prescribed that prayers should be performed by disturbing the peace of other nor does it preach that they should be through voice-amplifiers or beating of drums.
Q29. The Supreme Court observed: Where an enterprise is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example, in escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability. In such a case, the measure of compensation must be correlated to the magnitude and capacity of the enterprise because such compensation must have a deterrent effect. The larger and more prosperous the enterprise, the greater must be the amount of compensation payable by it for the harm caused on account of an accident in the carrying on of the hazardous or inherently dangerous activity by the enterprise. Name the case.
Options:
(A) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, 1991
(B) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P., 1985
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1986
(D) Union Carbide v. Union of India, 1984
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The 1986 case M.C. Mehta v. Union of India is a landmark environmental and judicial activism case that established the principle of absolute liability for industries involved in hazardous activities.
Q30. Article 48A and Article 51A (g) inserted in the Constitution by were
Options:
(A) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1978
(B) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(C) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1978
(D) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India in 1976 added Article 48A and Article 51A (g).
Q31. According to Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 “environmental pollutant” means
Options:
(A) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
(B) any substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
(C) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to a person
(D) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to the society
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 2(b) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 defines an environmental pollutant as any substance that is present in a concentration that could be harmful to the environment. The substance can be solid, liquid, or gaseous.
Q32. A is in possession of property claimed by B and C adversely. A does not claim any interest in the property and is ready to deliver it to the rightful owner. A can institute……suit.
Options:
(A) Friendly
(B) Caveat
(C) Interpleader
(D) Restitution
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 88 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 governs interpleader suits. It outlines the conditions and criteria for filing an interpleader suit, which is a lawsuit that determines who is entitled to a property or payment.
Q33. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than
Options:
(A) 6 months
(B) 3 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 3 years
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 110 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the security of good behaviour from habitual offenders. If an Executive Magistrate or District Magistrate receives information that a person is dangerous and desperate, they can require the person to show cause why they should not be ordered to execute a bond for good behaviour. The bond can be for a period of up to three years.
Q34. The police officer executing the warrant may use adequate force to access the place where search is to be conducted when
Options:
(A) A free ingress is not possible
(B) The occupant of the place is a hardened criminal and there is possibility to escape
(C) The area is in such a nature that problem may arise at any time
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 47 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the search of a place where a person to be arrested is believed to be. If a police officer or someone acting under a warrant of arrest believes that a person to be arrested is in a place, the person in charge of the place must allow entry and provide reasonable access for a search.
Q35. As per the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, in case of merger of the complaint with the police report the procedure to be followed for the trial shall be of……
Options:
(A) The complaint case
(B) The case instituted on the police report
(C) Both as per the convenience during the trial
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 210 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 outlines the procedure to be followed when there is a complaint case and a police investigation into the same offence.
Q36. Peek v. Gurney is a famous case relating to
Options:
(A) Mistake
(B) Misrepresentation
(C) Fraud
(D) Frustration of contract
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The 1873 case Peek v. Gurney is a famous case related to misrepresentation in a prospectus.
Q37. Law is conceived as a form of the power value-conceived by
Options:
(A) Bentham and Austin
(B) Hart
(C) C. Lasswell and McDougal
(D) Karl Olivecrona
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Lasswell is credited with being the founder of the field of political psychology, the intersection of psychology and political science, in the 1930s and 1940s. His works on political psychology include Psychopathology and Politics, World Politics and Personal Insecurity, and Power and Personality.
Q38. The development of the tradition of natural justice into one of natural law is usually attributed to the
Options:
(A) Stoics
(B) Positivists
(C) Historical School
(D) Analytical School
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The development of this tradition of natural justice into one of natural law is usually attributed to the Stoics. The rise of natural law as a universal system coincided with the rise of large empires and kingdoms in the Greek world.
Q39. The requirement to give reasons in administrative decisions which affect rights and liabilities has been held to be mandatory by the Supreme Court in …………..
Options:
(A) S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India
(B) State of Orissa v. Dr. Binapani Devi
(C) State of Maharashtra v. Jalgaon Municipal Council
(D) Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of U.P.
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The 1990 Supreme Court case S.N. Mukherjee v. Union of India established the principles of recording of reasons and orders without consideration.
Q40. Donoughmore Committee Report on Minister’s Powers, 1932, relates to
Options:
(A) England
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Donoughmore Committee Report on Ministers’ Powers, 1932, was concerned with the use of delegated powers, subordinate law, and formal administrative adjudication. The committee was established in 1929 and chaired by Lord Donoughmore and the report was published in 1932.
Q41. Section 47(3), Motor Vehicles Act empowers the Regional Transport Authority to limit the number of stage carriage permits. Explain the nature of the function exercised
Options:
(A) This is a judicial function, as the Authority’s decision is based on an official policy.
(B) This is a quasi-judicial function, as the Authority’s decision is based on an official policy.
(C) This is an administrative function, as the Authority’s decision is based on official policy
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 47(3) of the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 states that the registering authority must perform certain actions when a motor vehicle is held under a lease, hypothecation, or hire-purchase agreement.
Q42. In which famous case this issue had come a professional misconduct and is guilty of up. Whether the advocate had committed the offence of the criminal contempt of the Court for having interfered with and obstructed the course of justice by trying to threaten, overawe and overbear the Court by using insulting, disrespectful and threatening language
Options:
(A) Vinay Chandra Mishra, In Re
(B) Ex-Caps Harish Uppal v. Union of India
(C) Hikmat Ali Khan v. Ishwar Prasad Arya and Ors.
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The Vinay Chandra Mishra case (1995) is a landmark case that dealt with the issue of contempt of court and the powers of the judiciary to punish individuals.
Q43. “Misconduct” would cover any activity or conduct which his professional brethren of good repute and competency would reasonably regard as disgraceful or dishonourable. It may be noted that the scope of “misconduct” is not restricted by technical interpretations of rules of conduct. This was proved conclusively in the case of
Options:
(A) Noratanmal Chourasia v. M.R. Murali
(B) Bar Council of Maharashtra v. M.V. Dahbolkar
(C) N.G. Dastane v. Shrikant S. Shinde
(D) B.M. Verma v. Uttarakhand Regulatory Commission
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The case of Bar Council of Maharashtra v. M.V. Dahbolkar involved criminal lawyers who were charged with professional misconduct: Snatching briefs, Undercutting fees, Getting into physical fights, and Soliciting work from a specific person.
Q44. Retention of money deposited with advocate for the decree-holder even after execution proceedings was held as an instance of misconduct in which case
Options:
(A) In Re D.C. Saxena
(B) M. Veerendra Rao v. Tek Chand
(C) Shambhu Ram Yadav v. Hanuman Das Khatry
(D) Prahlad Saran Gupta v. Bar Council of India
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court case of Prahlad Saran Gupta v. Bar Council of India concerned an advocate, Prahlad Saran Gupta, who was found guilty of professional misconduct. Specifically, Gupta wrongfully withheld Rs. 1,500 that was due to a decree holder even after a proposed settlement between the parties did not occur.
Q45. In which case, where the advocate of one of the parties was asking for continuous adjournments to the immense inconvenience of the opposite party, it was held by the Supreme Court that seeking adjournments for postponing the examination of witnesses who were present without making other arrangements for examining such witnesses is a dereliction of the duty that an advocate owed to the Court, amounting to misconduct
Options:
(A) N.G. Dastane v. Shrikant S. Shinde
(B) Shambhu Ram Yadav v. Hanuman Das Khatry
(C) Noratanmal Chourasia v. M.R. Murali
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
It was held by the Supreme Court that seeking adjournments for postponing the examination of witnesses who were present without making other arrangements for examining such witnesses is a dereliction of the duty that an advocate owed to the Court, amounting to misconduct.
Q46. The judgment in……………..skews the delicate balance, carefully crafted by the Model Law (and enshrined in Section 34), between finality of arbitral awards on one hand and permissible judicial review on the other
Options:
(A) Renu Sagar Power Co. v. General Electric Corporation
(B) ONGC v. Saw Pipes Ltd.
(C) Sundaram Finance v. NEPC
(D) Olympus Superstructures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meena Vijay Khetan
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The 2003 case Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Ltd. vs Saw Pipes Ltd. was a notable legal case in India that established a new era of transnational commercial arbitration. The case involved a dispute over the supply of equipment for offshore oil exploration.
Q47. Supreme Court in………………held that irrespective of where the ‘central management and control is exercised’ by a company, companies incorporated in India, cannot choose foreign law as the governing law of their arbitration
Options:
(A) TDM Infrastructure (P) Ltd. v. UE Development India (P) Ltd.
(B) Corned Chemicals Ltd. v. C.N. Ramchand
(C) Shreejee Traco (I) Pvt. Ltd. v. Paperline International Inc.
(D) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
In the 2008 case TDM Infrastructure Private Limited v. UE Development India Private Limited, the Supreme Court of India ruled that two Indian companies cannot use international commercial arbitration (ICA) to resolve their dispute.
Q48. Which Section of the 1996 Arbitration Act permits the parties to engage in conciliation process even while the arbitral proceedings are on?
Options:
(A) Section 30
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 40
(D) Section 20
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 30 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 covers conciliation and the use of other procedures to encourage settlement of disputes during arbitration.
Q49. Where territorial jurisdiction of a court is transferred after passing a decree, an execution application may be filed
Options:
(A) In the court which had passed the decree
(B) In the Court to which territorial jurisdiction was transferred only
(C) In either of the court under (A) or (B)
(D) In any court in India
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Order 21 Rule 10 of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) of 1908 states that a decree-holder must submit an application to the court that passed the decree to have it executed.
Q50. When a decree is transferred for execution to another court and if the decree-holder has reasons to apprehend that the judgment-debtor will dispose of the property before it is attached by the other court, he may apply to the court which passed the decree to issue a ………. to attach the property at once.
Options:
(A) Caveat
(B) Restitution order
(C) Attachment order
(D) Precept
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
An attachment order is a legal process that allows a court to seize a debtor’s property or wages to pay a creditor. It can be used to enforce a final debt, but not for current rent or to end a tenancy.
Q51. Where the right to the discovery or the inspection sought depends on the determination of any issue in the suit, the court may try that issue as a…….. before deciding upon the right to discovery or inspection
Options:
(A) Special issue
(B) Preliminary issue
(C) Res Judicata
(D) Res sub judice
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A preliminary issue is a legal question that can be decided without evidence, based on the applicable law and the plaint. The court can use its case management powers to order the trial of preliminary issues to resolve the case or encourage a settlement.
Q52. Identify a case where set off can be pleaded
Options:
(A) Claim for unliquidated damages
(B) Suit for recovery of ascertained sum of money
(C) Suit for a sum legally non-recoverable
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
A set-off can be pleaded in a civil suit when the defendant and plaintiff have mutual debts and the defendant is seeking to settle one debt against the other. A set-off is a defensive plea that can eliminate or reduce the plaintiff’s claim.
Q53. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is…….from the date on which it becomes due
Options:
(A) 1 year
(B) 5 years
(C) 6 years
(D) 15 years
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The proviso to Section 125(3) of the CrPC also limits the magistrate’s sentencing power to a maximum of 12 months.
Q54. Section 41B is incorporated into the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which of the following decisions
Options:
(A) Nandini Satpati v. P.L. Dani
(B) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
(C) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
(D) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 41B of the CrPC deals with the procedure for arresting someone and the duties of the arresting officer. It states that the arrested person must be informed of their right to have a friend or relative named by them to be informed of their arrest, unless the memorandum is attested by a family member.
Q55. Chapter dealing with Plea Bargaining, has been inserted by
Options:
(A) The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1993
(B) The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001
(D) The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1993
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act of 2005 inserted Chapter XXI-A into the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973, which deals with plea bargaining. The chapter came into force on July 5, 2006.
Q56. As per the Criminal Procedure Code, during investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
Options:
(A) Judicial officer
(B) Any Person
(C) The Investigating Officer
(D) Any Police Officer
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
According to the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), police can search a place without a warrant if they have reasonable grounds to believe that the search is necessary for the investigation and the search cannot be obtained without undue delay.
Q57. Prosecution for the offence of defamation can be initiated only
Options:
(A) On the complaint of the aggrieved party
(B) On the basis of an F.I.R.
(C) On the basis of a police report
(D) If it is a matter related to domestic affairs of a family
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Prosecution for defamation can be initiated only after a complaint is filed by the aggrieved party.
Q58. “Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability”. J. Krishna Iyer in which case declared so?
Options:
(A) Chandramalai Estate v. Its Workmen
(B) Associated Cement Ltd. v. Their Workmen
(C) Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
(D) Indian General Navigation Railway Co. Ltd. v. Their Workmen
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The case of Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha was an industrial dispute that involved a steel tube manufacturing company and its workers.
Q59. Entry No. 22 of the Concurrent List deals with…..
Options:
(A) Social security and insurance, employment and unemployment
(B) Industrial disputes concerning Union employees
(C) Trade unions and industrial and labour disputes
(D) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Entry 22 of the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution deals with trade unions and industrial and labour disputes.
Q60. Which Article under the Constitution of India talks about the participation of workers in the management of Industries?
Options:
(A) 43
(B) 43A
(C) 43B
(D) 42
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Article 43A of the Constitution of India states that the State should ensure that workers are involved in the management of industries. The State can do this through legislation or other means.
Q61. Pick out the case that is popularly called as the Solicitor’s Case.
Options:
(A) Ahmedabad Textile Industry’s Research Association v. State of Bombay
(B) National Union of Commercial Employees v. Industrial Tribunal, Bombay
(C) Salem Advocates Bar Association v. Union of India
(D) Central Machine Tools Institute v. Dy. Registrar of Trade Unions
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The case of Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India was a landmark case in the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908. The Supreme Court of India upheld the constitutional validity of the amendments made to the CPC by the Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002. The case also led to the formation of a committee to suggest ways to implement the amendments.
Q62. Identify the case that is related to the need for promotion and preservation of internal democracy within trade unions
Options:
(A) Jay Engineering Works Ltd. v. State of West Bengal
(B) Railway Union v. Registrar of Trade Unions
(C) ONGC Workmen’s, Association v. State of West Bengal
(D) Hanumantha Rao v. Dy. Registrar of Trade Unions
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
It was held that the registrar of a trade union is not a quasi-judicial authority and cannot hold an inquiry by allowing parties to examine witnesses and decide the dispute as to who are real office-bearers.
Q63. In tort, there are two broad categories of activities for which a plaintiff may be held strictly liable
Options:
(A) Possession of certain animals abnormally dangerous activities
(B) Assault and battery
(C) Battery and negligence
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The owner or person in possession of certain types of animals is liable for injuries if the animal causes injury to another person or animal. This may include livestock, like cows, horses, bulls or goats. Abnormally dangerous animals also fall under this category and may include snakes, tigers, monkeys or bears.
Q64. What is the period of limitation prescribed for the suit instituted by a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property mortgaged?
Options:
(A) 3 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 12 years
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The period of limitation for a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property is 12 years from the date of dispossession. This is as per Article 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963.
Q65. Sections 12-15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provide for exclusion of time in computing the period of limitation prescribed by law. Which of the following falls inside the ambit of exclusion?
Options:
(A) Day on which judgment/order/award is pronounced
(B) Time during which stay/injunction operated
(C) Time during which the defendant had been out of India
(D) All the above
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Sections 12 and 15 of the Limitation Act, 1963 exclude time from the period of limitation for suits, appeals, and applications.
Q66. Provisions regarding Corporate Social Responsibility are incorporated in the Companies Act, 2013 under
Options:
(A) Section 101
(B) Section 111
(C) Section 135
(D) Section 235
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 135 of the Companies Act of 2013 in India mandates that certain companies contribute to corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives. The section requires companies to meet certain financial criteria and establish a CSR Committee.
Q67. What is Corporate Social Responsibility among the following?
Options:
(A) Employee benefits
(B) Project-based protection of national heritage
(C) Programs undertaken outside India
(D) Mere donations
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Corporate social responsibility (CSR) is a strategy undertaken by companies not to just grow profits, but to take an active and positive social role in the world around them. The term is also associated with the related term corporate citizenship.
Q68. Talak-e-tafwiz is
Options:
(A) Talak by delegation
(B) Triple Talak
(C) Talak by agreement
(D) Improper Talak
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Talaq-e-tafweez is a significant aspect of Muslim law that allows a wife to divorce herself without going to court. It is also known as delegated divorce.
Q69. Any immovable property possessed by a female Hindu, acquired before or after the commencement of Hindu Succession Act, shall be held after the commencement of the Act as
Options:
(A) A limited owner
(B) A full owner
(C) No ownership
(D) Not as absolute owner
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Any immovable property acquired by a female Hindu, before or after the commencement of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, is held by her as the full owner. This means that she holds the property as absolute property, not as a limited owner.
Q70. Who was the founder of Analytical School of Law?
Options:
(A) Jhering
(B) Bentham
(C) John Austin
(D) August Comte
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
John Austin (1790-1859) is considered the founder of the Analytical School of Jurisprudence. He is also known as the ‘father of English Jurisprudence’.
Q71. There was a contract to supply oil-seeds. But the Government rendered the sale and purchase of oil-seed illegal under the Defence of India Rules. Identify the effect
Options:
(A) Party at default is held liable
(B) Both parties are discharged from the performance of such contract
(C) Both parties are directed specific performance of the contract
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Discharge by performance takes place when the parties to the contract fulfill their obligations arising under the contract within the time and in the manner prescribed.
Q72. Principles evolved in Hadley v. Baxendale are the basis of Section……….. of the Indian Contract Act.
Options:
(A) 74
(B) 55
(C) 87
(D) 73
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 deals with compensation for loss or damage caused by a breach of contract.
Q73. Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 states thus: If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by…….recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit
Options:
(A) Application
(B) Restitution application
(C) Suit
(D) Reference
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows people to regain possession of immovable property they were dispossessed of without their consent.
Q74. As per the Specific Relief Act, 1963, identify the situation wherein any person interested in a contract may sue to have it rescinded, and such rescission may be adjudged by the court
Options:
(A) Where the contract is voidable or terminable by the plaintiff;
(B) Where the contract is unlawful for causes not apparent on its face and the defendant is more to blame than the plaintiff
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 27 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with when a contract can be rescinded and when it cannot.
Q75. A/An………..is one which is drawn by one person and accepted by another, without consideration, merely to enable the drawer to raise money on the bill by discounting it.
Options:
(A) Bills in sets
(B) Documentary bill
(C) Bearer instrument
(D) Accommodation bill
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
An accommodation bill is a bill, draft, or note that is created by one person for another without any consideration in exchange. The purpose of an accommodation bill is to allow the other person to get credit or raise money.
Q76. Which provision of the Negotiable Instruments Act discusses about material alteration of an instrument and its effects
Options:
(A) Section 77
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 87
(D) Section 78
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act of 1881 states that any material alteration to a negotiable instrument will make it void for those who were parties to the instrument at the time of the alteration and did not consent to it.
Q77. A transfers property to B for life, and after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them, or to the survivor of them. C dies during the lifetime of B. D survives B. At B’s death
Options:
(A) The property passes to D
(B) The property reverts back to A’s heirs
(C) The property is declared as having no owner
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 24 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 states that when a property interest is to be given to a specific group of people who are alive at a particular time, but the exact time is not specified, the interest will go to those who are still alive when the previous interest ends. This is unless the transfer’s terms indicate otherwise.
Q78. A transfer Rs. 500 to his niece C, if she will desert her husband. The transfer is
Options:
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 25 of the Transfer of Property Act of 1882 deals with conditional transfers of property.
Q79. Leading questions can be asked during
Options:
(A) Re-examination
(B) Examination-in-chief
(C) Cross-examination
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Cross-examination is a legal process where a party questions a witness who has already testified in order to challenge their credibility, knowledge, or testimony.
Q80. Estoppel is a rule by which a party to litigation is/are…..
Options:
(A) Stopped from asserting or denying a fact
(B) Prevented from appearing in person
(C) Prevented from hiding an evidence
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Estoppel is a legal doctrine that prevents someone from contradicting their past actions or statements.
Q81. Under Section 122 of the Evidence Act, a communication made to the spouse during marriage
Options:
(A) Remains privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce but not so on after death
(B) Does not remain privileged after the dissolution of marriage by divorce, but remains privileged even after death
(C) Does not remain privileged after dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
(D) Remains privileged communication after the dissolution of marriage by divorce or death
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes it so that a person cannot be forced to disclose or share any communication made to them during marriage. This is to preserve the harmony and confidence between the spouses.
Q82. Which provision under the Criminal Procedure Code reflects the principle of autrefois acquit/autrefois convict
Options:
(A) Section 300
(B) Section 305
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 311
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
‘Autrefois acquit’ and ‘autrefois convict’ are French terms that mean ‘previously acquitted’ and ‘previously convicted’ respectively. They are used in criminal law to describe a defendant’s plea to stop proceedings if they have already been tried and acquitted or convicted for the same facts or conduct.
Q83. Mare Liberum (The Freedom of the Seas), first published in 1609, is a book in Latin on international law written by
Options:
(A) Austin
(B) Hugo Grotius
(C) Arvid Pardo
(D) Starke
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Mare Liberum (The Freedom of the Seas) was written by Hugo Grotius, a Dutch jurist and philosopher, and first published in 1609. The book established the principle that the sea is international territory and that all nations have the right to use it for trade and travel.
Q84. The Indian who is presently a member of International Court of Justice
Options:
(A) Justice A.S. Anand
(B) Justice Bhagwati
(C) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(D) Justice Nagendra Singh
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Dalveer Bhandari is the Indian judge currently serving on the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
Q85. International Criminal Court is based on
Options:
(A) Rio Conference
(B) Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court
(C) Part of U.N. Charter
(D) Yugoslavia Statute International Criminal Court
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court is the treaty that established the International Criminal Court. It was adopted at a diplomatic conference in Rome, Italy on 17th July, 1998 and it entered into force on 1st July, 2002.
Q86. Constitutive and declaratory theories of State relate to
Options:
(A) Law of the Sea
(B) Law of Air Space
(C) Law of Outer Space
(D) State Recognition
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Constitutive theory holds that a State only exists after it receives recognition from other States. Recognition is a necessary act that gives a State legal personality.
Q87. Tabula rasa under International Law relates to
Options:
(A) State Recognition
(B) Universal Succession
(C) State Succession
(D) Sources of International Law
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
In international law, the principle of tabula rasa is the idea that treaty obligations do not pass from a contracting party to a successor State. The term literally means ‘clean slate’.
Q88. With reference to Cyber Crimes worm attack……..
Options:
(A) needs the virus to attack
(B) do not need the virus to attack
(C) needs the host to attack
(D) do not need the host to attack
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
A computer worm is a type of malware that replicates itself and spreads across a network, often with the intent to harm or steal data.
Q89. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication-is known as
Options:
(A) Salami Attacks
(B) Phishing
(C) Data diddling
(D) Forgery
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Phishing is a type of online scam that tricks people into giving away personal information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank information. The goal is to steal the victim’s money or identity.
Q90. The Act to provide legal recognition for the transactions carried out by means of electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication, commonly referred to as “Electronic Commerce” is dealt with under
Options:
(A) Information Technology Act
(B) Information and Communication Technology Act
(C) Information Communication Act
(D) Information and Cyber Space Act
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Electronic commerce (e-commerce) is the process of buying and selling products and services online. It can involve transactions between businesses, consumers, or both.
Q91. “Asymmetric Crypto System” under Information Technology Act means a system of a secure key pair consisting of a private key for creating a digital signature and
Options:
(A) an individual key to verify the digital signature
(B) a lock to verify the digital signature
(C) a public key to verify the digital signature
(D) a Government key to verify the digital signature
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The Information Technology Act of 2000 defines an asymmetric cryptosystem as a secure key pair that is used to encrypt and decrypt data.
Q92. Section 43A of the Information Technology Act deals with
Options:
(A) Compensation for failure to protect data
(B) Punishment for sending offensive messages
(C) Identity Theft
(D) Impersonation
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Section 43A of the Information Technology Act deals with the liability of a body corporate for wrongful loss or gain due to negligence in handling sensitive personal data.
Q93. The persons taking part in the commission of an offence have been divided into two classes. They are —
Options:
(A) Principal and abettors
(B) Principal and disciples
(C) Principal and accessory
(D) Debtor and holder
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The two classes of people involved in the commission of a crime are the principal and the abettors. Principal is the criminal actor. Abettors are people who assist the criminal actor in some way.
Q94. Who authored the book “The First Principles of Jurisprudence”
Options:
(A) Salmond
(B) Black Stone
(C) Austin
(D) Winfield
Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The First Principles of Jurisprudence is a book written by John Salmond and first published in 1893. In the book, Salmond defines jurisprudence as the science of the first principles of civil law.
Q95. A issued a warrant to a police officer to arrest P. But the officer arrests Q after the due inquiry believing Q to be P. Here
Options:
(A) P is liable for criminal negligence
(B) P has committed no offence by virtue of Section 76, IPC
(C) P has committed an offence of wrongful confinement
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) states that an action is not an offence if it is done by a person who is bound by law, or who in good faith believes themselves to be bound by law. This section deals with mistakes of fact, and is derived from the legal maxim Ignorantia facti excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat.
Q96. Durham doctrine means
Options:
(A) That an accused is not criminally liable if his unlawful act is the product of immature understanding due to immature age
(B) That an accused is not criminally liable if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect
(C) That an accused is criminally liable if his unlawful act even if it is the product of mental disease or mental defect
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
According to the Durham Rule, a criminal defendant is not liable for a criminal act if the act resulted from a mental disease or defect the defendant had at the time of the crime. Courts sometimes refer to it as the product test, because the defendant must show their criminal act was the product of a mental disease.
Q97. De minimis non curat lex implies
Options:
(A) Every person is liable for his own acts
(B) Trifling acts do not constitute an offence
(C) Necessity knows no law
(D) Nothing is an offence which is done in private defence
Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Latin phrase de minimis non curat lex means ‘the law does not concern itself with trifles’. It is a common law principle that states the law doesn’t take notice of minor or insignificant matters, and therefore doesn’t require judicial scrutiny.
Q98. P and Q agree to commit theft in R’s house but no theft is actually committed. Here R and Q are guilty of
Options:
(A) Abetment of conspiracy
(B) Abetment of instigation
(C) No offence
(D) Criminal conspiracy
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Criminal conspiracy is when two or more people agree to commit a crime, or to cause an illegal act to be carried out. The agreement can be to commit an illegal act, or to commit an act that is not illegal but by illegal means.
Q99. Ramu is suffering from disease of the heart. Rahul his heir rushes into his room and shouts in his ear “your house has been destroyed by fire” intending thereby to kill Ramu. Ramu dies of the shock. Here Rahul is liable for the offence of
Options:
(A) Attempt to murder
(B) Murder
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Abetment to murder
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Culpable homicide is a term used in the Commonwealth of Nations to describe a category of offenses that involve homicide, whether or not the offender intended to kill.
Q100. The doctrine of civil conspiracy was enunciated by the House of Lords in
Options:
(A) Walsby v. Anley
(B) Moghul Steamship Company v. Mc. Gregor Gow and Company
(C) Allen v. Flood
(D) Quinn v. Leathem
Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Quinn v. Leathem was a 1901 UK House of Lords case that established that a conspiracy to injure another person’s interests is actionable in tort.
