Section 1: Personal & Family Law (Q1–3)
Q1. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for women:
(A) Coparcenary rights at par with men;
(B) Inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her brothers;
(C) Inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased husband
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Hindu Succession Amendment Act (HSAA) of 2005 gave women in India legal equality in inheritance rights over all property, including agricultural land and coparcenary joint family property. The Act removed gender discriminatory provisions in the Hindu Succession Act of 1956.
Q2. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, provides for:
(A) Custody of the Children
✓ (B) Permanent alimony and maintenance
(C) Maintenance Pendente lite
(D) Division of Matrimonial property
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 deals with permanent alimony and maintenance. It gives either spouse the right to request maintenance if they are financially unable to support themselves. The court can order the respondent to pay the applicant a monthly or yearly sum for maintenance, which can last for the applicant’s lifetime.
Q3. A Hindu Wife had been living with her children and all the children had been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance under:
(A) Section 18(2)(f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(B) Section 18(2)(d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
✓ (C) Section 18(2)(a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(D) Section 18(2)(g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 18(2)(a) of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 states that a Hindu wife is entitled to live separately from her husband without losing her right to maintenance if he deserts her. Desertion is defined as abandoning her without her consent or against her will, or without a reasonable cause.
Section 2: Environmental & IP Law (Q4–10)
Q4. According to Environment Protection Act, 1986, ‘environmental pollutant’ means:
(A) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
(B) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
✓ (C) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
(D) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer section 2(b) of the Environment Pollution Act, 1986.
Q5. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to:
(A) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(B) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
(C) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
✓ (D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer Schedule 1 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, which includes the jurisdiction of Public Liability Insurance Act, 1901.
Q6. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication is known as:
(A) Pharming
(B) Smishing
✓ (C) Phishing
(D) Diding
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Phishing is a type of online scam that involves tricking a victim into providing personal information, such as login credentials or credit card numbers.
Q7. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for which punishment of imprisonment is upto a period of:
✓ (A) 7 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 11 years
(D) 14 years
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Plea bargaining is applicable in India for offenses with a maximum sentence of less than seven years in prison.
Q8. “From a plain reading of Section 195, Cr.P.C., it is manifest that it comes into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an offence under Section 190(1), Cr.P.C.; and it has nothing to do with the statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a cognizable offence… In other words, the statutory power of the Police to investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by Section 195, Cr.P.C” This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of:
(A) Nalini v. State of Tamilnadu
✓ (B) Raj Singh v. State [(1998)]
(C) Shamsher Singh v. State of Punjab
(D) State of Himachal Pradesh v. Tara Dutta
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Refer case of Hon’ble Supreme Court in State of Punjab v. Raj Singh Criminal Appeal No. 82 of 1998 (Arising out of SLP (Crl.) No. 2053.
Q9. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
(A) A method of agriculture or horticulture
(B) A presentation of information
(C) Topography of integrated circuits
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to the Indian Patents Act, the following are not patentable: Inventions that are contrary to public order or morality, Scientific discoveries, Mere discoveries of new forms of known substances, and Methods of agriculture or horticulture.
Q10. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre-existing:
(A) GATT
✓ (B) BIRPI
(C) TPRM
(D) PCT
Answer: (B)
Explanation: BIRPI is the French acronym for the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property. It was established in 1893 in Bern to manage the Berne Convention and the Paris Convention. In 1970, it was renamed the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) and became a United Nations Specialized Agency in 1974.
Section 3: Arbitration & ADR (Q11–13)
Q11. The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act — held in the case of:
✓ (A) Union of India v. East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
(B) Union of India v. M.C. Mehta
(C) Tata Process Ltd. v. Union of India
(D) Union of India v. Indian Change Chrome Ltd.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Model Law covers a range of topics related to international commercial law, including: International commercial arbitration and International commercial mediation.
Q12. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in —
(A) A document signed by the parties;
(B) An exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
(C) An exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other;
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Q13. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is mentioned under…………… of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act-
(A) Section 7
✓ (B) Section 4
(C) Section 20
(D) Section 22
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 4 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is about the waiver of the right to object in arbitration proceedings. A party is considered to have waived their right to object if they continue with arbitration without stating their objection to a non-compliance, or if they don’t state their objection within the time limit provided.
Section 4: Civil Procedure Code (Q14–15)
Q14. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or defences is dealt with under:
(A) Section 33 of CPC
✓ (B) Section 35A of CPC
(C) Section 30 of CPC
(D) Section 35 of CPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 deals with compensatory costs for false or vexatious claims or defenses. This section is an exception to the general rule of costs under Section 35 of the CPC. It is designed to address situations where Section 35 doesn’t offer enough compensation. Section 35A can be invoked in any suit or proceeding, including execution proceedings.
Q15. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted service of summons upon the defendant:
(A) O. 5 R. 19A
(B) O. 5 R. 19
✓ (C) O. 5 R. 20
(D) O. 5 R. 21
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Section 5: Public Interest Litigation & Constitutional Law (Q16–18)
Q16. The utility of Public Interest Litigation:
(A) Liberalised locus Standi
(B) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
(C) Procedural requirements are liberalized
✓ (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: PIL owes its origin to liberalisation of the concept of locus standi. PIL is non-adversarial in nature and has resulted out of the liberalisation.
Q17. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the State of Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public has ‘sufficient interest’ to maintain a petition under Article 32 — This relates to the case of:
(A) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, AIR 1989 (SC) 2039
✓ (B) D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, AIR 1987 (SC) 579
(C) Neeraja Choudhari v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 1984 (SC) 1099
(D) Chameli Singh v. State of U.P., AIR 1996 (SC) 1051
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The 1987 Supreme Court of India case D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar was a landmark case that established several important principles regarding the use of ordinances and the separation of powers between the executive and legislative branches of the government.
Q18. “Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or economically disadvantagious position unable to approach the court for relief, any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinants class of persons, in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons.” Justice Bhagwati in the case of:
(A) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Pandey v. State of West Bengal
✓ (C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(D) Janata Dal v. H.S. Chowdhary
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer S.P. Gupta v. Union of India, AIR 1982 (SC) 149.
Section 6: Criminal Law (IPC) (Q19–21)
Q19. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under: Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code
✓ (A) Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Sction 509 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the punishment for attempted acid attacks. Offense: Throwing or attempting to throw acid on someone, or attempting to administer acid to someone. Punishment: Minimum of 5 years’ imprisonment, up to 7 years’ imprisonment, and a fine.
Q20. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his act is:
(A) An offence of murder
(B) An offence of Culpable homicide
✓ (C) Not an offence
(D) An offence of causing grievous hurt
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 80, IPC — Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, and without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.
Q21. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy, writes a letter in imitation of Z’s handwriting, purporting to be addressed to an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search. A has committed an offence under:
(A) Section 256 of IPC
✓ (B) Section 192 of IPC
(C) Section 195A of IPC
(D) Section 201 of IPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 192 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines the crime of fabricating false evidence. A person fabricates false evidence if he causes a circumstance to exist, makes a false entry, or creates a document with a false statement. The intent is that the false evidence will appear in a judicial proceeding or other legal proceeding.
Section 7: Contract Law (Q22–23)
Q22. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as:
(A) A Contract of Uberrimae fide
(B) Implied Agency
✓ (C) Quantum meruit
(D) De nova contract
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that if a person does something for another person without intending to do so for free, and the other person benefits from it, then the other person must compensate the first person.
Q23. Agreement is:
✓ (A) A promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
(B) Enforceable by law
(C) Enforceable contract
(D) Un enforceable by law
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 2(e) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an agreement.
Section 8: Land Acquisition & Taxation (Q24–27)
Q24. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression “land” includes:
(A) Benefits to arise out of land
(B) Things attached to the earth
(C) Things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
✓ (D) All of the Above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 3(A) of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
Q25. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference as to compensation exists is provided under:
(A) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act
(B) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
✓ (C) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
(D) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer section 35 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894.
Q26. According to Income Tax Act “zero coupon bond” means a bond:
(A) Issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005
(B) In respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital Company or infrastructure capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
(C) Which the Central Government may, by notification in the Offical Gazette, specify in this behalf
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 2(48) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Q27. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by:
✓ (A) The Constitution (one hundred and first) Amendment Act, 2016
(B) The Constitution (one hundred and second) Amendment Act, 2016
(C) The Constitution (eighty fourth) Amendment Act, 2016
(D) The Constitution (seventy seveth) Amendment Act, 2016
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016, introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. The GST replaced a number of Central and State taxes, including excise duty, service tax, sales tax, entry tax, and entertainment tax. The GST was introduced on July 1, 2017.
Section 9: Constitutional Law & Evidence Act (Q28–36)
Q28. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia subject to certain conditions in the case of:
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India (2011)
✓ (B) Common Cause v. Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1
(C) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)
(D) D Chenna Jagadeeswar v. State of A.P. (1988)
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Common Cause (A Regd. Society) v. Union of India was a 2018 Supreme Court of India case that established the right to die with dignity as a fundamental right.
Q29. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about:
(A) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
(B) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
(C) Doctrine to natural justice with reference to civil servants
✓ (D) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Article 310 of the Indian Constitution incorporates the common law doctrine of pleasure. It expressly provides that all persons who are members of the Defence Services or the Civil Services of the Union or of All-India Services hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Q30. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from:
✓ (A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 29
(C) Article 13
(D) Article 14
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003) 4 SCC 399, the court held that the Amendment Act passed was in violation of the fundamental rights.
Q31. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression ‘liberty’ is followed by the words:
(A) Of status and opportunity
✓ (B) Of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
(C) Assuring the dignity of the individual
(D) Justice, social economic and political
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression “liberty” is followed by the words “justice, equality, and fraternity”. The Preamble of the Constitution of India is an introductory statement that establishes the Constitution’s principles, objectives, and purposes.
Q32. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of title. Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
(A) Section 92
(B) Section 124
✓ (C) Section 115
(D) Section 110
Answer: (C)
Explanation: This question is illustration of Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 which deals with the principle of Estoppel.
Q33. The Arbitration Act, 1996 repeals:
(A) The Arbitration Act, 1940
(B) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
(C) The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 repealed the following Acts: The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937; The Arbitration Act, 1940; The Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
Q34. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked, and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present at all of them. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act.
(A) Section 12
✓ (B) Section 6
(C) Section 3
(D) Section 5
Answer: (B)
Explanation: This question is illustration of Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q35. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with:
(A) Documentary Evidence
(B) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
✓ (C) Burden of proof as to ownership
(D) Proof of guilt
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 deals with the burden of proof regarding ownership. When someone is in possession of something, the burden of proving they are not the owner is on the person who claims to be the owner. Possession is a prima facie presumption of ownership.
Q36. Section 113A of the Evidence Act deals with:
(A) Presumption as to abetment of murder
(B) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
(C) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
✓ (D) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 deals with the presumption of suicide abetment by a husband or relative of a married woman. The court may presume that a married woman’s suicide was abetted by her husband or a relative if the following conditions are met: the suicide occurred within seven years of the woman’s marriage, and there is evidence that the woman’s husband or a relative subjected her to cruelty.
Section 10: Torts & Civil Procedure (Q37–42)
Q37. Vis Major means:
✓ (A) Act of God
(B) Act of Individual
(C) Act of other party
(D) Act of plaintiff
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Vis Major, the phrase derived from “Superior force” or “The Act Latin, which means of God”.
Q38. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means:
✓ (A) An act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(B) An act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(C) An act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged, controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The act of State doctrine in law of torts is a principle that states that a sovereign power’s act cannot be challenged by the national courts of another State. It applies when a sovereign power acts against another sovereign power or its subjects, who do not owe allegiance to the sovereign power.
Q39. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal of a wrongful act, are known as:
(A) Abettors
✓ (B) Joint tortfeasors
(C) Tort holders
(D) Tort holders in common
Answer: (B)
Explanation: When two or more persons unite to cause damage to another person, then they will be liable as joint tortfeasors. All those who actively participate in the civil wrong commission are joint tortfesors.
Q40. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt with under Section __ of CPC:
(A) 9
(B) 10
✓ (C) 11
(D) 12
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The principle of Res Judicata is dealt with under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC).
Q41. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with:
(A) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals
✓ (B) Presumption as to foreign judgments
(C) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
(D) Presumption as to judgments of the High Court
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 14 of CPC provides that the Court shall presume upon the production of any document purporting to be a certified copy of a foreign judgment, that such judgment was pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record; but such presumption may be displaced by proving want of jurisdiction.
Q42. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B may sue A:
(A) Only in Delhi
(B) Only in Kolkata
(C) In both the places of Delhi and Kolkata
✓ (D) Either in Kolkata or in Delhi
Answer: (D)
Explanation: This question is illustration (B) of section 19 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Section 11: Consumer Protection & Family Law (Q43–47)
Q43. The National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission was constituted in the year.
✓ (A) 1988
(B) 1998
(C) 1999
(D) 1997
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) was established in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. It is headquartered in New Delhi and is a quasi-judicial commission that serves as the highest consumer court in India.
Q44. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in entertaining a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986:
(A) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(B) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
(C) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
✓ (D) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 24A of the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 states that a consumer dispute must be filed within two years of the cause of action arising. The District Forum, State Commission, or National Commission will not accept a complaint filed after the two-year time limit.
Q45. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, in a Joint Hindu Family governed by the Mitakshara law, conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for:
✓ (A) Section 6
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 11
(D) Section 13
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 6 of the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act of 2005 gives daughters the same rights and liabilities as sons in a Joint Hindu family. Daughters become coparceners by birth and have the same rights to coparcenary property as sons. They have the same obligations as sons in respect of the coparcenary property. Daughters can dispose of their property by testamentary disposition. Female family members can serve as the family’s Karta.
Q46. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to:
(A) Void marriages
(B) Voidable marriages
(C) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
✓ (D) Conditions of Hindu marriage
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with conditions for a Hindu marriage.
Q47. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncles son of 23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is:
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
✓ (C) Void
(D) Valid only in north India
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 deals with void marriages and states that any marriage that takes place after the Act’s commencement is null and void if it contravenes any of the conditions specified in clauses (i), (iv) and (v) of section 5.
Section 12: Criminal Law, Contracts & Labour (Q48–57)
Q48. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of.
(A) 14 years
✓ (B) 7 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 provides nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
Q49. R. v. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that:
✓ (A) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as defence against murder
(B) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life to save his own may become inevitable
(C) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded a defence against murder.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Regina v. Dudley & Stephens is an English criminal case that established the principle that necessity is not a defense to murder.
Q50. X, Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently X, Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay?
✓ (A) A can, under Section 43 para 1
(B) A can under Section 49 para 1
(C) A cannot and will have to wait till X, Y become traceable
(D) Z can be compelled only for one third
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 43 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 states that if two or more people make a joint promise, the promisee can compel any of the joint promisors to perform the entire promise. This section also states that each joint promisor can compel the other joint promisors to contribute equally to the performance of the promise.
Q51. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This process is termed as:
(A) Agency
✓ (B) Bailment
(C) Guarantee
(D) Contingency
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 defines the terms “bailment”, “bailor”, and “bailee”. Bailment: The delivery of goods from one person to another for a specific purpose, with the agreement that the goods will be returned or disposed of when the purpose is complete. Bailor: The person who delivers the goods. Bailee: The person who receives the goods.
Q52. Section 14A inserted by THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT, 2018, relates to:
✓ (A) Power of the Courts to engage experts
(B) Establishment of Special Court
(C) Expeditious disposal of case
(D) Specific performance with regard to contracts
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, as amended by the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018, gives the court the power to hire experts to assist with specific issues in a suit.
Q53. “Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability”-Justice Krishna Iyer. Name the case:
(A) Chandramalai Estate v. Its workmen
(B) Associated Cement Ltd., v. Their workmen
✓ (C) Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
(D) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., v. Their workmen
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Refer Gujarat Steel Tubes v. Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha, 1980 SCR (2) 146.
Q54. A workman aggrieved by the order of ……. may directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government:
(A) Dismisssal, discharge and retrenchment
✓ (B) Dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
(C) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
(D) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 states that any termination of an employee’s services, such as dismissal, discharge, or retrenchment, is considered an industrial dispute. This is true even if no other employee or union is involved.
Q55. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, 1986 Shriram Food and Fertilisers case relates to:
✓ (A) Oleum Gas leak
(B) Ganga water cleaning
(C) Child labour
(D) Bonded labour
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The 1986 case M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, also known as the Oleum Gas Leak Case or the Shriram Industries Case, is a landmark environmental law case in India. The case highlighted the importance of environmental protection in India, established the principle of “absolute liability” for corporations that engage in hazardous industries, and addressed issues related to industrial regulation and corporate responsibility.
Q56. A. K. Kraipak v. Union of India relates to:
✓ (A) Likelihood of Bias
(B) Delegated Legislation
(C) Administrative Discretion
(D) Notice
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India was a 1970 case that established that the principles of natural justice apply to administrative functions, not just judicial functions. The case involved the selection of officers for the Indian Forest Service and highlighted the issue of bias and conflict of interest.
Q57. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of:
(A) Doctrine of Ultra vires
(B) Malafides
(C) Exclusion of Judicial Review
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground of Doctrine of Ultra vires.
Section 13: Administrative & Constitutional Law (Q58–66)
Q58. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil Procedure is dealt with under:
(A) Section 21A
(B) Section 15
(C) Section 21B
✓ (D) Section 83
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 83 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides alien enemies residing in India with the permission of the Central Government, and alien friends, may sue in any Court otherwise competent to try the suit, as if they were citizens of India, but alien enemies residing in India without such permission, or residing in a foreign country, shall not sue in any such Court.
Q59. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 as per order XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor is known as:
(A) IT Order
✓ (B) Garnishee Order
(C) Decree Holder order
(D) Bank Order
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Order 21, Rule 46 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) is about garnishee proceedings, which allow a decree-holder to attach debts owed to the judgment debtor by a third party. The garnishee is a person who owes a debt to the judgment debtor. The civil court may order the garnishee to pay the amount directly to the decree-holder.
Q60. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with:
✓ (A) Interpleader suit
(B) Interlocutory Order
(C) Restitution Order
(D) Attachment Order
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Refer section 88 and Order XXXV of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Q61. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue:
(A) Queen Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar v. Emperor
(C) Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: In Queen Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, ILR 22 Bom. 112 Strachey, J., hold that a man must not try to make others feel enmity of any kind towards the Government. In Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar v. Emperor, AIR 1942 (FC) 22 at 26, law of sedition is to be found in this case. In Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar, AIR 1962 (SC) 1955, the Supreme Court held that section 124A does not violate Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution as it is a reasonable restriction.
Q62. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious belief, is an offence under:
(A) Section 295
✓ (B) Section 295A
(C) Section 265A
(D) Section 276
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is a law that punishes the deliberate and malicious act of insulting a religion or religious beliefs of any class of citizens in India. It is considered a hate speech law that prohibits blasphemy against all religions in India.
Q63. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C., the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except:
(A) A sentence of death
(B) Imprisonment for life
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Section 29 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (Cr.P.C.), the Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except a sentence of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
Q64. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ:
✓ (A) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
(B) for setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was sought to be acquired in J&K
(C) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as a UT
(D) for setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India ruled that an indefinite suspension of internet services would be illegal under Indian law and that orders for internet shutdown must satisfy the tests of necessity and proportionality.
Q65. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art. 19(1)(a) read with Article 19(2) in the case of:
(A) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
(B) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(C) Govinda v. State of M.P.
✓ (D) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Court agreed that the prohibition against the dissemination of information by means of a computer resource or a communication device intended to cause annoyance, inconvenience or insult did not fall within any reasonable exceptions to the exercise of the right to freedom of expression.
Q66. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be….
(A) Two
(B) Three
✓ (C) Five
(D) Nine
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India inter-alia provides that the minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be five.
Section 14: Personal Law & Evidence (Q67–75)
Q67. Requisites of a valid adoption: no adoption shall be valid unless; (i) the person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii) the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made in compliance with the other conditions in this Chapter mentioned under:
✓ (A) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(B) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(C) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
(D) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 relates to requisites of a valid adoption.
Q68. According to the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be:
(A) Void
(B) Cognizable
(C) Compoundable
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 3 read with section 7 of Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.
Q69. Suits by indigent persons is dealt with under:
(A) Order 44 of CPC
✓ (B) Order 33 of CPC
(C) Order 55 of CPC.
(D) Order 22 of CPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Order 33 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with suits by indigent persons.
Q70. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt with under:
✓ (A) Section 6 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
(C) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
(D) Section 20 of the Evidence Act
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The relevancy of facts that are part of the same transaction is dealt with under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. This principle of law is known as the rule of res gestae, which is an exception to the hearsay rule of evidence.
Q71. India, that is Bharat, shall be a:
(A) Federation of States
(B) Quasi federal
✓ (C) Union of States
(D) Unitary State of a special type
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 1(1) of Constitution of India states India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
Q72. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 (SC) 1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case) the court held that:
✓ (A) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability.
(B) In escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
(C) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
(D) A company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of toxic gas affecting the health of the people
Answer: (A)
Explanation: In the case M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, AIR 1987 (SC) 1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers case), the Supreme Court of India held that hazardous industries must be absolutely liable for any harm caused to the community, regardless of fault or negligence. The court also established the principle of absolute liability and that compensation amounts should be linked to the size of the company as a deterrent.
Q73. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following statements are relevant under Evidence Act:
(A) The facts that A asked C to lend him money
(B) D said to C in A’s presence and hearing-“I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B 10,000 rupees,”
(C) A went away without making any answer
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: This question is illustration (g) of section 8 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Q74. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be proved under:
(A) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
(B) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
✓ (C) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
(D) Section 29 of the Evidence Act
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (IEA) states that when a fact is discovered as a result of information received from an accused in police custody, only so much of the information as relates to the fact discovered can be proved. This information can include confessions or not.
Q75. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of science, or art, or as to indentity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law, science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger impressions are relevant facts. This is under….. of the Evidence Act.
(A) Section 42
✓ (B) Section 45
(C) Section 50
(D) Section 55
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 relates to opinions of experts.
Section 15: Constitutional Law, Bar Council & Taxation (Q76–88)
Q76. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under_of the Constitution:
(A) Article 323B
✓ (B) Article 323A
(C) Article 233
(D) Article 323
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 323A of the Constitution of India gives Parliament the power to establish administrative tribunals and provide for their jurisdiction, powers, and authority.
Q77. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under:
(A) Section 3 of the Advocates Act, 1961
✓ (B) Section 7(1)(b) of the Advocates Act, 1961
(C) Section 17 of the Advocates Act, 1961
(D) Section 18 of the Advocates Act, 1961
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 7 of the Advocates Act of 1961 outlines the functions of the Bar Council of India (BCI): Professional conduct: Set standards for the professional conduct and etiquette of advocates. Disciplinary committees: Establish procedures for the BCI’s disciplinary committee and those of each State Bar Council. Advocate rights: Safeguard the rights, interests, and privileges of advocates. Law reform: Support and promote law reform.
Q78. According to Section 49 of the Advocates Act of 1961 the bar Council of India has power to make rules:
(A) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for such membership
(B) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
(C) the standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and the inspection of universities for that purpose
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 49 of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives general power of the Bar Council of India to make rules.
Q79. Indemnity contract is defined under:
✓ (A) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
(B) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
(C) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
(D) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 124 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term “Contract of indemnity”.
Q80. Peek v. Gurney is a famous case related to:
(A) Coercion
(B) Fraud
(C) Mistake of fact
(D) Mistake of law
Answer: Disputed / Unlisted Answer
Explanation: The 1873 case Peek v. Gurney is a famous case related to misrepresentation in a prospectus.
Q81. Which provision under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and statements?
(A) Section 162
✓ (B) Section 164
(C) Section 163A
(D) Section 165
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of India deals with the recording of confessions and statements. The purpose of this section is to ensure that confessions are made voluntarily and accurately.
Q82. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section ….. of Cr.P.C.
✓ (A) 83
(B) 82
(C) 85
(D) 86
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 83 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with Attachment of property of person absconding.
Q83. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under Section……. of Cr.P.C.
(A) 201
(B) 204
✓ (C) 205
(D) 200
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 205 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with Magistrate who may dispense with personal attendance of accused.
Q84. The definition of ‘money’ under GST law does not include:
(A) Letter of Credit
✓ (B) Currency held for numismatic value
(C) Pay Order
(D) Traveller cheque
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Refer section 2(75) of CGST Act, 2017.
Q85. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by:
(A) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(B) Respective Governors of the State
✓ (C) The President
(D) A collective body of Union and States
Answer: (C)
Explanation: As per Article 279A(1) of the Constitution, the GST Council had to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of the Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016.
Q86. The definition of Contract is defined under:
(A) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act
✓ (B) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act
(C) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act
(D) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines the term “Contract” under section 2 (h) as an agreement enforceable by law.
Q87. Sections 255 A to 245L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals with the concept of:
(A) Unlawful Assembly
(B) Arrest without warrant
(C) Search and seizures
✓ (D) Plea bargaining
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Plea bargaining is a legal practice where the defendant in a criminal case pleads guilty to a lesser offense or some of the charges in exchange for a more lenient sentence or other concessions.
Q88. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt with under:
(A) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
✓ (B) Section 110 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 110 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders.
Section 16: Constitutional, Criminal & Corporate Law (Q89–100)
Q89. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of “Transformative Constitutionalism’ in the case of:
✓ (A) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
(B) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2010)
(C) Naz Foundation v Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
(D) Aruna Roy v. Union of India, 2002
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Transformative constitutionalism (TC) is a political and legal doctrine that uses the constitution to achieve social change. It is based on the idea that a constitution is a living document that can be interpreted and applied to promote equality and social progress.
Q90. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed by:
(A) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
(B) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
(C) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence targeting a computer resource located in India.
✓ (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Refer section 4 of the Indian Penal Code which deals with Extension of Code to extraterritorial offences.
Q91. Section 105H of Cr.P.C. deals with:
✓ (A) Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
(B) Notice of forfeiture of property
(C) Management of properties seized orforfeited
(D) Identifying unlawfully acquired property
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 105H of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
Q92. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation is dealt with under:
(A) Section 178 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 469 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 478 of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 168 of Cr.P.C.
Answer: Disputed / Unlisted Answer
Explanation: Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 prevents the court from taking cognizance of an offense after the limitation period has passed. Limitation period: The limitation period depends on the punishment for the offense: Six months if the offense is only punishable by a fine, One year if the offense is punishable by imprisonment for up to one year, Three years if the offense is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year but less than three years.
Q93. “decree-holder” means:
✓ (A) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(B) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order incapable of execution has been made
(C) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
(D) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been made
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A decree holder is the person who receives a decree or an order that can be executed in his favour. The person who is required to satisfy the decree is called the judgment debtor.
Q94. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. Under which section of the Advocates Act:
✓ (A) Section 7
(B) Section 8
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 6
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Refer section 7(1)(b) of the Advocates Act provides for the functions of Bar Council of India.
Q95. According to Justice “Abbot Parry” what are the “Seven Lamps of Advocacy”.
(A) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vi) Fellowship
✓ (B) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence (vi) Judgment and (vi) Fellowship
(C) (i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vi) Fellowship
(D) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vi) Fellowship
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Justice ‘Abbot Parry’ qualifies the following qualities as “Seven Lamps of Advocacy”. They are (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
Q96. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company:
✓ (A) 3
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 5
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 149(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 requires that every company shall have a minimum number of 3 directors in the case of a public company, two directors in the case of a private company, and one director in the case of a One Person Company. A company can appoint maximum 15 fifteen directors.
Q97. An associate company, in relation to another company, means:
(A) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
✓ (B) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
(C) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and does not include a joint venture company
(D) a company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company
Answer: (B)
Explanation: According to section 2(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 an “associate company”, in relation to another company, means a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.
Q98. Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in the case of:
(A) Justice K.S. Putta Swamy v. Union of India
(B) M.P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra
✓ (C) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(D) Gagan Harsh Sharma v. The State of Maharashtra
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down as unconstitutional in the case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India on March 24, 2015. The Supreme Court ruled that the section was unconstitutionally vague and did not fall within the reasonable exceptions of freedom of speech and expression. The court also held that the section violated Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, which guarantees freedom of speech.
Q99. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act, held in the case of:
(A) The Workmen v. Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors.
(B) John Joseph Khokar v. Bhadange B.S.& Ors.
✓ (C) A. Sundarambal v. Government of Goa
(D) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. v. State of Bihar
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court also ruled in A. Sundarambal versus Govt. of Goa, Daman and Diu (1988) that teachers are not workmen. The court reasoned that teaching is a noble vocation and not skilled or unskilled manual work, technical work, supervisory work, or clerical work.
Q100. According to Factories Act:
✓ (A) “child” means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age
(B) “child” means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
(C) “child” means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
(D) “child” means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of age
Answer: (A)
Explanation: According to section 2(C) of the Factories Act, 1948 “child” means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age.
