Q1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955……… petition in which a decree of restitution of conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the court for a decree for divorce by showing that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights as between parties of marriage for a period of one year or upwards after passing of the decree.
(A) Does not permit any party to that
(B) Does not permit the party against whom the
(C) Does permit any party to that
(D) Does permit any person related to either party to that
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 13(1A)(ii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 states that there has been no restitution of conjugal rights between the parties to the marriage for a period of at least one year after the passing of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights. |
Q2. The offences under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are
(A) Cognizable and bailable
(B) Non cognizable and non-bailable
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable
(D) Non cognizable and bailable
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 15 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 states that offenses under the Act are cognizable and non-bailable. This means that these offenses are not covered by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. |
Q3. An arbitration proceeding is a:
(A) Judicial proceeding
(B) Quasi-judicial proceeding
(C) Administrative proceeding
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: An arbitration proceeding is a formal, out-of-court process for resolving a dispute between parties in a contract. In an arbitration proceeding, the parties agree to appoint an impartial third party, called an arbitrator, to make a binding decision. The arbitrator’s decision is called an arbitration award, and it is legally binding on both parties. |
Q4. What is ad hoc arbitration?
(A) It is a proceeding administered by the parties themselves, with rules created solely, for that specific case
(B) Parties make their own arrangement with respect to all aspects of the arbitration, including the laws and rules
(C) The seal of arbitration, the language, and the scope and issues to be resolved by means of arbitration.
(D) (A) (B) (C)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Ad hoc arbitration is a type of arbitration where the parties to a dispute organize the arbitration themselves, without the involvement of an institutional body. In ad hoc arbitration, the parties and arbitrators independently determine the procedure and rules for the arbitration. |
Q5. Which of the following Sections of the Civil Procedure Code define the ‘Mesne Profit’?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Mesne profits are the profits that a person in wrongful possession of property has received or could have received with reasonable diligence, plus interest on those profits. Mesne profits are a fee that a person in unlawful possession of another’s property must pay to the owner of the property. |
Q6. How many kinds of presumptions are there as classified by the Supreme Court?
(A) Permissive presumptions or presumptions of facts
(B) Compelling presumptions or presumptions of law (rebuttable presumptions)
(C) Irrebuttable presumptions of law or conclusive presumptions.
(D) All of them
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Supreme Court classifies presumptions into two types: Presumptions of Fact (always permissive and rebuttable) and Presumptions of Law (either rebuttable or irrebuttable). |
Q7. What is the leading decision in the case of Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India?
(A) Right of hearing
(B) Separation of powers
(C) Delegated legislation
(D) Rule of evidence
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Maneka Gandhi v. The Union of India, has been held that the law and procedure must be of a fair, just and reasonable kind. The principle of natural justice comes into force when no prejudice is caused to anyone in any administrative action. The principle of Audi Alteram Partem is the basic concept of the principle of natural justice. |
Q8. Advocate’s Act, 1961 came into force on:
(A) 19th May, 1961
(B) 19th April, 1961
(C) 1st May, 1961
(D) 19th January, 1961
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Advocates Act, 1961 came into force on May 19, 1961. The Act was enacted by Parliament to consolidate and amend laws relating to legal practitioners, and to establish Bar Councils and an All-India Bar. |
Q9. A Railway servant was killed in a bus accident during the course of employment. His family members may claim compensation under:
(A) The Motor Vehicles Act
(B) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either under (A) or under (B)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The family members of a railway servant may claim compensation either under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 or under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923. |
Q10. “Casting Couch” in Bollywood, the Indian film industry, is an example of-
(A) sexual assault
(B) sexual harassment
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The casting couch is a euphemism for the practice of soliciting sexual favours from a job applicant in exchange for employment in the entertainment industry, primarily acting roles. |
Q11. According to section 2 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the term “motor cab” means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than
(A) 5 passengers or including the driver
(B) 6 passengers or including the driver
(C) 5 passengers or excluding the driver
(D) 6 passengers or excluding the driver
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to Section 2(25) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the term ‘motor cab’ means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not more than six passengers excluding the driver for hire or reward. |
Q12. The National Commission of Consumer Protection is composed of—
(A) 7 members
(B) 5 members
(C) 8 members
(D) 6 members
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 20 of the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 deals with the composition and functioning of the National Commission of Consumer Protection. The National Commission is made up of a President and at least four members. |
Q13. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with “amount of maintenance”?
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 22
(C) Section 23
(D) Section 24
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 23 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act of 1956 gives the court the discretion to decide the amount of maintenance to be awarded. |
Q14. In which of the following case the Supreme Court First of all made an attempt to look into the question regarding the extension of the right to life to the right to Health and other Hygienic conditions—
(A) The Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(B) M.C Mehta v. Union of India
(C) V. Lakshmipathy v. State of Karnataka
(D) F.K. Hussain v. Union of India
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The 1985 case Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of Uttar Pradesh was a landmark Supreme Court of India judgment that addressed the environmental impact of limestone quarrying in the Doon Valley. |
Q15. Basel Convention is associated with one of the following—
(A) International Trade in Endangered species of wild Fauna & flora
(B) Climate change
(C) Protection of Ozone layer
(D) The control of transboundary movement of Hazardous waste and their disposal.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and it came into force in 1992. |
Q16. Cyber crime is…..in nature
(A) Tangible
(B) Intangible
(C) Of mental Violence
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Cybercrime is intangible in nature, which can make it challenging to investigate and prosecute. |
Q17. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908, “Foreign Court” means
(A) A court situated outside India
(B) A court situated outside India and not established under the authority of Government of India
(C) A court situated in India, applying foreign law
(D) All of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: According to Section 2(5) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, a ‘foreign court’ is a court located outside of India that was not established or continued by the Central Government. |
Q18. Misuse of mechanism of PILS means-
(A) Filing PILs for protection of private interest
(B) Filing PILs for oblique motive
(C) Filing PILS only for publicity
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The misuse of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) occurs when the PIL process is used for personal or political gain instead of for the public good. |
Q19. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?
(A) It is the non-observance of the procedural norms by the rule-making authority
(B) It may make the rule ultra vires due to non-observance of rule-making authority and hence become void
(C) It means the lacuna in the procedure of law
(D) (A) and (b)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Procedural ultra vires is when a public authority fails to follow the mandatory procedural requirements of an enabling act. In other words, it occurs when a public authority exceeds its powers. |
Q20. The ground of “error of law apparent on the face of the record” is connected with which of the writ?
(A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Certiorari literally means, ‘to be informed of’. A writ of certiorari may be issued by a superior court requiring that the record of the proceedings in some cause or matters pending before the inferior court should be transmitted to the superior court to be dealt with there. |
Q21. Under Civil Procedure Code find the incorrect match:
(A) Section 5………Revenue Court
(B) Section 7………….. Provincial Small Causes Court
(C) Section 9 … Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts
(D) Section 8……….Presidency Small Cause Courts
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 deals with the jurisdiction of civil courts to try civil suits. |
Q22. What is the Period of Limitation for expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific Relief Act, 1963:
(A) 6 months
(B) 10 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 18 months
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 20C of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with the expedited disposal of suits filed under the Act. The court must dispose of suits filed under the Act within 12 months from the date the summons are served to the defendant. |
Q23. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment-
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) can pass a sentence of imprisonment, but there are some limitations. A CJM can’t pass a sentence of death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment for more than seven years. |
Q24. Harbouring an offender who has escaped from custody, or whose apprehension has been ordered, if the offence be capital is dealt with under-
(A) Section 215 of IPC
(B) Section 216 of IPC
(C) Section 217 of IPC
(D) Section 218 of IPC
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 216, IPC provides for the harbouring offender who has escaped from custody or whose apprehension has been ordered. |
Q25. The maxim ‘actus not facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ means-
(A) There can be no crime without a guilty mind
(B) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
(C) Crime is the result of guilty mind
(D) In crime intention is relevant, motive is irrelevant
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Latin maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea means ‘an act does not make one guilty unless the thought is also guilty’. It is a fundamental principle of criminal jurisprudence that signifies that every crime has a physical element and a mental element. |
Q26. Law laid down under section 73 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 is related to which of the following cases:
(A) Hothester v. De-la-tur
(B) Rabinson v. Devison
(C) Hedley v. Baxendale
(D) Dikinson v. Dads
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The gist of Hadley v. Baxendale is that a party that breaches a contract is liable for any losses that were reasonably foreseeable at the time the contract was made. This case is considered a leading English contract law case. |
Q27. Recovery of Specific Immovable Property may be obtained by C.P.C within what period—
(A) Within 7 months
(B) Within 6 months
(C) Within 8 months
(D) Within 10 months
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 6(2) of the Specific Relief Act provides that no suit under this section shall be brought after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession; or against the Government. |
Q28. Who appoints the Commissioner for rehabilitation and resettlement under the LARR Act?
(A) LARR Authority
(B) Minister of Environment and Forests
(C) Central Government
(D) State Government
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The State Government appoints the Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement under the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (LARR) Act. |
Q29. The Bond under section 109, Cr.PC as security for good behaviour from suspected person can be executed for a period not exceeding:
(A) Six months
(B) Two years
(C) One year
(D) Three months
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 109 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the security of good behaviour from suspected persons and vagrants. |
Q30. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C, 1973 was removed in:
(A) 1973
(B) 1989
(C) 2001
(D) 2007
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001 omitted the maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be paid to the wife, child, father or mother as maintenance under Section 125 of the Cr.P.C. |
Q31. The term “WIPO” stands for:
(A) World Investment Policy Organization
(B) World Intellectual Organization Property
(C) Wildlife Investigation and Policing Organization
(D) World Institute for Prevention of Organized Crime
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is the United Nations agency that serves the world’s innovators and creators, ensuring that their ideas travel safely to the market and improve lives everywhere. |
Q32. Health and education cess is applicable to-
(A) All assessees
(B) All assessees except company
(C) Individual/HUF
(D) Company only
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Health and education cess is applicable to all assessees. |
Q33. Contractual Liability arises, where:
(A) There is offer and acceptance only.
(B) There is intention to create legal relation.
(C) There is loss to one party
(D) The loss of one party is the gain of other party.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Contractual liability arises when a party fails to fulfill their obligations under a contract, causing harm or loss to another party. |
Q34. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:
(A) Directory
(B) Mandatory
(C) None-Mandatory
(D) Discretionary
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with the concept of ‘res subjudice’ and the stay of suits. Section 10 prevents courts from simultaneously hearing two parallel cases on the same subject-matter, cause of action, and relief. |
Q35. Constructive res judicata is contained in which of the following?
(A) Explanation III to Section 11
(B) Explanation IV to Section 11
(C) Explanation VI to Section 11
(D) Explanation VIII to Section 11
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Constructive res judicata is contained in Explanation IV to Section 11 of CPC, which states that any matter which might and ought to have been made ground of defence or attack in such former suit shall be deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in such suit. |
Q36. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High Court regarding constitutional validity of Section 377, Indian Penal Code reversed by Supreme Court in:
(A) NALSA v. Union of India
(B) Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi
(C) Shabnam Hasmi v. Union of India
(D) Suresh Kaushal v. Naz Foundation
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Delhi High Court passed a judgment in favour of the LGBTs in the year 2009 in the landmark judgment of NAZ Foundation v Government of N.C.T Delhi, declaring Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code which criminalizes homosexuality in India to be unconstitutional. |
Q37. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in which section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996—
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 8
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 10
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 gives judicial authorities the power to order parties to resolve a dispute through arbitration if there is an arbitration agreement between them. |
Q38. Under the head “subsequent conduct”, which of the following type of conduct would be material?
(A) Change of life
(B) Evasion of justice
(C) Fear, trembling
(D) All of them
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that any fact that shows or constitutes motive, preparation, or previous or subsequent conduct is relevant. |
Q39. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of that Indian Constitution is available in which of the following clauses?
(A) Clause (1) (E)
(B) Clause (1) (D)
(C) Clause (1) (B)
(D) Clause (1) (C)
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Article 19 (1) (e) of Constitution of India provides that all citizens shall have the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India. |
Q40. Under which section of the Evidence Act, admissions are defined?
(A) 17
(B) 16
(C) 15
(D) 18
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 defines an admission as a statement that can be oral, documentary, or electronic, and that suggests a reference to a relevant or in-issue fact. |
Q41. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has held that the investigating officer should be allowed to refer to the records of investigation
(A) State of Karnataka v. Yarappa Reddi
(B) Mohammed Khalid v. State of West Bengal
(C) Baburam v. State of U.P.
(D) State of Rajasthan v. Om prakash
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Supreme Court’s judgment highlighted that the overall credibility of other evidence must be considered independently, individual reactions to traumatic events vary, and the degree of the injury and the nature of surrounding circumstances are decisive in any given case. |
Q42. If a party who obtained an order for leave to amend pleading does not amend the same within how many days, he shall not be permitted to do that without the leave of the Court-
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Fourteen days
(C) Twenty days
(D) Thirty days
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Order VI Rule 18 CPC stipulates that if a party who has obtained an order for leave to amend does not amend accordingly within the time limited for that purpose by the order, or if no time is thereby limited then within fourteen days from the date of the order, he shall not be permitted to amend after the expiration of such limited time. |
Q43. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has been given under section_……of the Advocate’s Act, 1961-
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 35
(D) None
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 35 of the Advocates Act, 1961 deals with the punishment of advocates for misconduct. |
Q44. Under which Section of IPC, Professional Negligence is often invoked against medical professionals in cases alleging professional negligence?
(A) 303A
(B) 304A
(C) 302
(D) 305
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 304A – Causing death by negligence. The punishment is imprisonment for up to two years, a fine, or both. |
Q45. A offers a bribe to B, a public servant, as a reward for showing A some favour in the exercise of B’s official functions. B accepts the bribe
(A) A has abetted the offenced define in Section 160, IPC
(B) A has abetted the offenced define in Section 161, IPC
(C) A has abetted the offenced define in Section 162, IPC
(D) A has abetted the offenced define in Section 163, IPC
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 161 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the offense of a public servant taking illegal gratification in respect of an official act. The punishment for this offense is a fine, up to three years in prison, or both. |
Q46. When Perpetual Injunction may be granted—
(A) Where the defendant is trustee of the Property for the plaintiff.
(B) Where there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage.
(C) Compensation in money would not afford adequate relief.
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: A perpetual injunction can be granted in the following situations: Breach of obligation, Invasion of property. |
Q47. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold the rule of law and ensure that the public justice system is enabled to function at its full potential. Any violation of the principle of professional ethic by an advocate is unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even a minor violation/misconduct militates against the fundamental foundation of the public justice system. It was said in-
(A) Hikmant Ali Khan v. Ishwar Prasad Arya, 1997 3 SCC 131
(B) O.P. Sharma v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86
(C) L.D. Jaikwal v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405
(D) Shamsher Singh Bedi v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (1996) 7 SCC 99.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: In the case of O.P. Sharma v. High Court of Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86, the Hon’ble Supreme Court further observed that an advocate should be dignified in his dealings to the Court, to his fellow lawyers and to the litigants. |
Q48. Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 contains provision relating to—
(A) Incorporation of company
(B) Formation of companies with charitable objects, etc.
(C) Effect of registration
(D) Effect of memorandum and articles.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the provisions relating to formulation of companies with charitable objects, etc. |
Q49. The verification of the registered office shall be furnished to the registrar within a period of incorporation—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 120 days
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The verification of a company’s registered office must be furnished to the Registrar within 30 days of incorporation. |
Q50. Cyber law deals with—
(A) All activities concerning the internet
(B) IPR
(C) E-commerce
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Cyber law, also known as information technology law or internet law, deals with the legal issues related to the use of the internet and other electronic devices. |
Q51. The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by:
(A) The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
(B) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(C) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
(D) The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The payment of compensation to railway employees by the railway administration for injury by accident is governed by the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923. |
Q52. The minimum amount of compensation payable under Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 in case of total permanent disablement of a railway servant due to accident is Rs—
(A) Rs. 80,000/-
(B) Rs. 90,000/-
(C) Rs. 1,40,000/-
(D) Rs. 1,20,000/-
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923, the amount of compensation payable to a workman depends on the nature of injury caused by accident, the monthly wages of the workman, and the age of the worker concerned. |
Q53. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo—
(A) Copy rights
(B) Trade mark
(C) Patent
(D) Industrial designs
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 2(zb) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 inter-alia defines the ‘trade mark’ as a mark capable of being represented graphically and which is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others. |
Q54. The Section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of commencement of arbitral proceeding is—
(A) Section 20
(B) Section 21
(C) Section 22
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 21 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 covers the start of arbitral proceedings. It states that arbitral proceedings begin when the respondent receives a request to refer a dispute to arbitration, unless the parties agree otherwise. |
Q55. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, who shall record the information of rape being given by a rape victim?
(A) Officer in-charge of the police station
(B) Deputy Superintendent of police
(C) Officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector
(D) Woman police officer or any Woman officer
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), a woman police officer is required to record a rape victim’s statement. |
Q56. Under the provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973—
(A) Summons can be oral
(B) Summons cannot be served on corporate entities
(C) Summons are either for appearance or for producing a document/thing
(D) Summons can be served to servants in case the person on whose name summons are made cannot be found
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Summons are either for appearance at court at a specified time and place, or to produce a document or thing if it is considered necessary for an investigation, inquiry, trial, or other proceeding. |
Q57. Every person who is a member or a defence service or hold any civil post under the Union, holds office during the pleasure of the……
(A) Prime Ministers
(B) President
(C) Council of Minister
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Article 310 of the Constitution of India specifies the tenure of office for civil servants and defense service members. The President of India holds the power to dismiss members of the Union’s civil service, defense service, or all-India service. |
Q58. Which of the following statement/statements is/are false for the purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955? I. It is assumed that a person who is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub sect is assumed to be Hindu III. A person converted who converted to another religion needs to follow local ritual/custom for converting back to Hinduism
(A) I only
(B) I and II
(C) III only
(D) I and III
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 2(1) (c) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 states that this Act applies to any other person domiciled in the territories to which this Act extends who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi or Jew by religion. |
Q59. Provision for settlement of dispute outside court has been provided under Section………….. of Civil Procedure Code.
(A) 91
(B) 89
(C) 51
(D) 151
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 89(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 deals with the process of referring disputes to alternative dispute resolution (ADR) mechanisms. |
Q60. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on-
(A) 6th October, 1860
(B) 1st March, 1974
(C) 15th March, 1872
(D) 1st September, 1872
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Indian Evidence Act came into force on September 1, 1872. It was originally enacted to apply to all judicial proceedings in British India, including courts martial, but not to affidavits or proceedings before an arbitrator. |
Q61. According to the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution: I. There shall be a public service commission for the Union and a Public Service commission for each State. II. The public service commission for the Union, if requested to do by the Governor of a State may, with the approval of the President, agree to serve all or any of the needs of the State. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) I and II
(D) None of them
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Article 315 of the Indian Constitution establishes the Public Service Commissions (PSCs) for the Union and the States of India. |
Q62. Any private person may arrest any person who:
(A) Commits non-bailable offence in his presence
(B) Commits non-bailable offence and cognizable offence in his presence
(C) Commits compoundable offence in his presence
(D) Commits offence in his presence or is a proclaimed offender
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 43 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 deals with the arrest of a person by a private citizen and the procedure to be followed in such a case. |
Q63. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in force?
(A) 6 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 12 years.
(D) Until executed or cancelled
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: As per Section 70 of Cr.P.C., every warrant of arrest issued by a Court under this Code shall remain in force until it is cancelled by the Court which issued it, or until it is executed. |
Q64. Rate of additional Depreciation will be……… under section 32 of Income Tax Act—
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 15%
(D) 30%
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: As per the Section 32(1) (iia) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 the plants and machinery engaged in the production of a thing are granted a deduction on additional depreciation at the rate of 20% in the year they were purchased. |
Q65. Amount of deduction under section 24 of the Income Tax Act from annual value is—
(A) ½ of Annual Value
(B) 1/3 of Annual Value
(C) 3/10 of Annual Value
(D) 17/10 of Annual Value
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 24 of the Income Tax Act lets homeowners claim a deduction of up to Rs. 2 lakhs (Rs. 1,50,000 if you are filing returns for last financial year) on their home loan interest if the owner or his family reside in the house property. |
Q66. The test of reasonableness is not wholly ……….test and its contours are Fairley indicated by Constitution.
(A) Subjective
(B) Objective
(C) Descriptive
(D) Summative
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: A reasonableness test is an objective test that can be used in a variety of contexts, including contract law, financial statements, and court decisions. |
Q67. The power to enact a law relating to the citizenship of India is left to………..under the provisions of Article 11 of the Indian Constitution.
(A) President
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) House of people
(D) Parliament
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Article 11 of the Constitution of India of 1950 gives Parliament the power to make laws about citizenship. |
Q68. Promissory estoppel against Government agencies is decided in:
(A) Tweedle v. Atkinson
(B) Dutton v. Poole
(C) Pournami all Mills v. State of Kerala
(D) Kedar Nath v. Gauri Mohamad
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The doctrine of promissory estoppel can be applied against the government in India, but the government can be exempt under certain circumstances. |
Q69. Frustration of contract is provided by which section of the Indian Contract Act?
(A) Section 73
(B) Section 70
(C) Section 2(d)
(D) Section 56
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Doctrine of Frustration is provided under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, which inter-alia mentions that an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void. |
Q70. Schedule II of the Employees Compensation Act, 1923 deals with—
(A) Age factor for calculating the amount of compensation
(B) List of persons who are included in the definition of ‘Employee’
(C) List of occupational diseases
(D) List of injuries Deemed to Result in Permanent Total Disablement
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Schedule II of the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 lists the types of people who are considered workers under the Act. |
Q71. Admission can be broadly categorised into:
(A) Judicial
(B) Extra-judicial
(C) Either A and B
(D) Both A and B
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Admission can broadly be divided into two categories: (A) judicial admissions, and (B) extra-judicial admissions. |
Q72. Section 66, Indian Evidence Act lays down:
(A) A notice must be given before secondary evidence can be received under section 65(a), Indian Evidence Act
(B) Notice to produce a document must be in writing
(C) Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure Code, prescribes the kind of notice to produce a document
(D) All of them
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 66 of the Indian Evidence Act lays down the rules for giving notice to produce documents when the original document is in the possession of another party. |
Q73. Maxim “Res Ipsa Loquitur” means:—
(A) The thing speaks for itself
(B) Where there is right there is remedy
(C) Where there is remedy there is right
(D) Where there is no fault there is no remedy
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Res ipsa loquitur (Latin: ‘the thing speaks for itself’) is a doctrine in common law and Roman-Dutch law jurisdictions under which a court can infer negligence from the very nature of an accident or injury in the absence of direct evidence on how any defendant behaved in the context of tort litigation. |
Q74. The Committee which led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was headed by
(A) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
(B) Justice Altamas Kabir
(C) Justice J.S. Verma
(D) Justice A.S. Anand
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Justice Verma Committee was the committee that led to the passing of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013. |
Q75. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure Code, non-cognizable offences are:
(A) Public wrongs
(B) Private wrongs
(C) Both public and private wrongs
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Non-cognizable offences are criminal acts that are less serious in nature and are defined in the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) as those for which the police cannot: Register a First Information Report (FIR), Investigate or arrest without permission from the court, and Arrest without a warrant. |
Q76. A discrimination against a man or a woman, only on grounds of……… would be violative of Article 15(1)-
(A) Sex
(B) Remuneration
(C) Place of birth
(D) Religion
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Article 15 of the Constitution of India forbids discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, gender, or place of birth or any of them. |
Q77. “The Objective Resolution” adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947 was drafted by—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) B.N. Rao
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the Objective Resolution that was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947. |
Q78. Right to the property was eliminated from the list of Fundamental Rights during the tenure of—
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Morarji Desai
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights in India during the tenure of the Moraji Desai government in 1978 via the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. |
Q79. When the accused states, “I will produce the share which I have received in such and such robbery” which of the following are not admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian Evidence Act? I. An admission that there was a robbery II. An admission that the accused took part in it III. An admission that he got part of the property IV. A statement as to where the property is
(A) I, II and III
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
(D) All of them
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 states that confessions made to a police officer cannot be used against a person accused of an offense. |
Q80. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the decision in—
(A) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(B) Homes v. Ashford
(C) Rylands v. Fletcher
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Strict liability is a legal concept that holds a defendant responsible for the consequences of an action, even if they didn’t intend to cause harm or were not at fault. It is used in both criminal and civil law. |
Q81. The Rule of Last opportunity was laid down in:—
(A) Davies v. Mann
(B) State of A.P. v. Ranganna
(C) Nugent v. Smith
(D) Kalawati v. State of HP
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The rule of last opportunity is a legal doctrine that applies when both the plaintiff and defendant are at fault for an accident, but the defendant had the last chance to prevent it. |
Q82. In which of the following cases was it held that “the rights conferred under section 25 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary. The fact that the date of decree makes no difference”?
(A) Surenderabal v. Suppiah
(B) Mukesh teli v. Bharti Teli
(C) Sesi Ammal v. Thaiyu Ammal
(D) Laxmi v. Krishna
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: In the case of Seshi Ammal and Anr. v. Thaiyu Ammal, (AIR 1964 (Mad) 217), the Hon’ble Madras High Court while interpreting Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, observed that the terms of the section are very clear. |
Q83. A plaint has to be presented to the Court under Order IV, Rule 1 in-
(A) Single copy
(B) Duplicate
(C) Triplicate
(D) No fixed rule
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Order IV, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) states that a suit is instituted by presenting a plaint. The plaint must comply with the provisions of Orders 6 and 7, as applicable. |
Q84. Omission to give notice under Order XXI. Rule 22 will—
(A) Render the execution null and void
(B) Render the execution irregular
(C) Render the execution voidable
(D) Not affect the execution
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: The omission to give notice under Order XXI, Rule 22 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) may not render the proceedings void unless substantial injury is caused. |
Q85. Where a decree is passed against the Union of India or State for the Act done in the official capacity of the person concerned, under section 82, CPC, execution, shall not be issued on any such decree unless the decree remains unsatisfied for a period of—
(A) 3 months from the date of decree
(B) 6 months from the date of the decree
(C) 1 year from the date of the decree
(D) 2 years from the date of decree
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 82 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 is about the execution of decrees. Execution cannot be issued on a decree unless it remains unsatisfied for three months after the report. |
Q86. On which of the following dates did Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation.
(A) 18th May, 1955
(B) 17th June, 1955
(C) 22nd May, 1955
(D) 18th June, 1955
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into force on 18th May, 1955 with an object to amend and codify the law relating to marriage among Hindus. |
Q87. Which of the following properties will section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, govern? I. Tarwad II. Tavazhi III. Kutumba IV. Kavaru V. Illom
(A) I, III, and V
(B) I, IV and V
(C) I and II
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 allows Hindus to dispose of their property through a will or other testamentary disposition. |
Q88. The maximum limit of the members of the State bar council:
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) None
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The maximum number of members in a State Bar Council in India depends on the number of advocates on the State roll. More than 10,000 advocates: The State Bar Council has 25 members. |
Q89. Specific Relief Act, 1963 contains-
(A) 6 chapters and 40 Sections
(B) 7 chapters and 42 Sections
(C) chapters and 43 Sections
(D) 8 chapters and 44 Sections
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Specific Relief Act, 1963 contains 8 Chapters and 44 Sections. |
Q90. The phrase “file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests” means-
(A) filing PIL for protection of only public interest
(B) filing PIL for protection of both public and private interest
(C) filing PIL for protection of only private interest
(D) filing PIL alleging it to be in public interest but actually seeking protection of private interest
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The phrase ‘file a PIL, ostensibly in public interest but, in fact, to serve personal or private interests’ means filing a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to protect only private interests. |
Q91. Filing of frivolous PILS results in—
(A) Increasing backlog of cases
(B) Wastage of resources
(C) Lesser availability of time for hearing other genuine cases
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The filing of frivolous public interest litigation (PILs) can have several consequences, including wasting court time, burdening the judiciary, being used for political agendas, and being used to harass opponents. |
Q92. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill X. Is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane?
(A) Z has not committed any offence as per section 98 of IPC and same right of private defence to X if Z is mad
(B) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed an offence and no right of private defence to X
(C) Z has committed an offence for not using his mind
(D) None above
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) covers the right of private defense against someone who is not in a state to understand the nature of their actions or that they are wrong. |
Q93. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is mentioned in which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution?
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 21A
(C) Article 22
(D) Article 22A
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Article 22 of the Indian Constitution protects against arbitrary arrest and detention in certain cases. |
Q94. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right to property has been inserted in the Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 42nd Amendment Act
(C) 40th Amendment Act
(D) 51st Amendment Act
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The 44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978 had abolished the right to property which is contained under Article 31 from the category of fundamental rights. It is made a constitutional right under Article 300A. |
Q95. Which of the following sections of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 have been repealed/amended by section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939?
(A) Section 4
(B) Section 5
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 7
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 repealed the Section 5 of Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 vide the Repealing and Amending Act, 1942. |
Q96. As per section 53 of IPC, the word “injury” denotes any harm whatever illegally caused to any person’s—
(A) Body
(B) Mind
(C) Reputation
(D) All above
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 lists the following punishments for offenders: Death, Life imprisonment, Rigorous imprisonment, Simple imprisonment, Forfeiture of property, Fine. |
Q97. Which of the following cases can be cured under section 465 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Entertaining of complaint without complying with sections 195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
(B) The reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case
(C) The examination of witness in absence of the accused
(D) Non Compliance with section 235(2)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 465 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the reading and recording of the evidence taken in one case into another companion case. |
Q98. Which of the following statements hold true for de novo trials?
(A) Omission or illegality in the procedure even if it does not affect the core of the case can become a ground for calling de novo trials
(B) A de novo trial should be the last resort
(C) the court originally trying the case can order de novo trial
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: ‘De novo’ trial means a ‘new trial’ ordered by an appellate court in exceptional cases when the original trial failed to make a determination in a manner dictated by law. |
Q99. In case of land acquisition by the Central Government for public-private partnership projects, consent of how many affected families is mandated by the LARR Act?
(A) 60%
(B) 70%
(C) 80%
(D) 90%
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: In the case of acquisition for public private partnership projects, the prior consent of at least seventy percent of those affected families, as defined in sub-clauses (i) and (v) of clause (C) of section 3, shall be obtained through a process as may be prescribed by the appropriate Government. |
Q100. A company which is not a domestic income-tax at the rate the company will pay:-
(A) 25%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 20%
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: In India, foreign companies are taxed at 40% of the total income. |
