Q1. The title of the Constitution of India is laid down in…………………
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 5
(C) Article 390
(D) Article 393
Ans. (* (Disputed))
| Explanation: It is the ‘short title’ of the Constitution of India which is laid down in Article 393. |
Q2. Constitutional provisions of Fundamental Rights (FRs) are given under which part of the Constitution of India?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Part III i.e. Articles 12 to 35 of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. |
Q3. By which of the following Amendment Act of 1985, Anti Defection Law was added in the Constitution of India?
(A) 51st Constitutional Amendment
(B) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 53rd Constitutional Amendment
(D) 54th Constitutional Amendment
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, also known as the Anti-Defection Law, restricts the ability of politicians to switch parties in Parliament. |
Q4. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court decided that, constitutional amendment is a ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13(2) and therefore if it violates any of the fundamental rights it may be declared void?
(A) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Keshvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(C) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The 1967 Supreme Court case Golak Nath v. State of Punjab established that Parliament can’t amend the Constitution in a way that violates fundamental rights. |
Q5. Uniform Civil Code in India is:
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Government Policy
(D) Constitutional Right
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Article 44 of Constitution of India corresponds with Directive Principles of State Policy and states that State shall endeavour to provide for its citizens a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) throughout the territory of India. |
Q6. As per Article 16, No citizen shall, on grounds only of ……….or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State.
(A) religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
(B) religion, age, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
(C) religion, race, age, sex, descent, place of birth, residence
(D) religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, age
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity in public employment and prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. |
Q7. The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be……..
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The minimum number of judges that must sit to decide a case involving a substantial question of law regarding the interpretation of the Constitution is five, according to Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India. |
Q8. According to the Article 300A of the Constitution of India, No. ……….shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.
(A) Person
(B) Citizen
(C) Foreigner
(D) Indian
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Article 300A mentions that no person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law. |
Q9. Which of the following is not ‘Law’ according to Article 13 of Indian Constitution?
(A) Rule
(B) By-laws
(C) Custom or usage
(D) None of these
Ans. (* (Disputed))
| Explanation: According to Article 13(3)(a) of Constitution of India, ‘Law’ includes any Ordinance, Order, Bye-law, Regulation, Notification, Custom and usage in the territory of India having force of law. |
Q10. Which of the following Schedule deals with Union list, State list and Concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
(A) Schedule 7
(B) Schedule 10
(C) Schedule 11
(D) Schedule 12
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. |
Q11. Under Sections 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code, an offence is punishable if it is done by a child
(A) of below seven years of age.
(B) of above seven years of age but below twelve years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
(C) of above seven years age but below ten years having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
(D) of above seven years of age but below twelve years not having attained sufficient maturity and understanding.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 82 of the IPC states that any act committed by a child under seven years of age is not considered an offense. Section 83 states that a child between the ages of seven and twelve is not guilty of an offense if they do not have the maturity to understand the nature and consequences of their actions. |
Q12. Name two essential conditions of Penal Liability.
(A) Guilty Body & Rightful Act
(B) Guilty Intent & Wrong Motive
(C) Guilty Mind & Wrongful Act
(D) Guilty Motive and Wrongful Act
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Actus reus means ‘guilty act’ whereas the term Mens rea means ‘guilty mind’. Actus reus is the actual physical act committed, or in the case of omission, not committed in a crime. Mens rea is the intent or awareness of wrongdoing behind the crime. |
Q13. Provisions for Right of Private Defence is given between,…………of IPC
(A) Sections 74-84
(B) Sections 96-106
(C) Sections 107-120
(D) Sections 141-160
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The provisions related to right of private defence of person and property are dealt with under Sections 96 to 106, IPC. |
Q14. The consent is not a valid consent under Section 90 of IPC:
(A) If given under fear of injury or misconception of fact
(B) If given by person of unsound mind
(C) If given by child below 12 years of age
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 90 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines when consent is not considered valid: Fear, Misconception, Unsoundness of mind or intoxication, and Child under 12 years. |
Q15. Causing of the death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide as provided under
(A) Explanation III to Section 300
(B) Explanation III to Section 299
(C) Explanation III to Section 301
(D) Explanation III to Section 302
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: According to Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, causing the death of a child in the mother’s womb is not homicide. However, causing the death of a living child, even if it has not breathed or been fully born, may be considered culpable homicide. |
Q16. Punishment for Defamation under Indian Penal Code is simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to_…. or with fine or with both.
(A) 2 Years
(B) 3 Years
(C) 4 Years
(D) 5 years
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Under Section 500, IPC, whoever defames another shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. |
Q17. Assault or criminal force to women with intent to outrage her modesty under IPC in which kind of offence?
(A) Non-Cognizable and Bailable
(B) Cognizable and Bailable
(C) Cognizable and Non-Bailable
(D) Non-Cognizable and Non-Bailable
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Assault or criminal force to a woman with the intent to outrage her modesty is an offense under Section 354 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This offense is considered a gender-based crime and is intended to protect women from indecent or filthy behaviour. |
Q18. ‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells ‘Z’, that they will fire at ‘Z’, if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building. ‘A’ is guilty of:
(A) wrongful confinement
(B) wrongful restraint
(C) Both wrongful confinement and wrongful restraint
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Wrongfully confining someone means preventing them from going beyond certain limits. For example, locking someone in a walled space or placing guards at the exits of a building to prevent someone from leaving. |
Q19. The provision of ‘Plea Bargaining’ under Chapter XXIA of CrPC are not applicable if the offence is committed against a child below the age of
(A) 12 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 16 years
(D) 18 years
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Plea bargaining under Chapter XXIA of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) is not applicable if the offense is committed against a child under the age of 14 years. |
Q20. Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code is ‘SECULAR’ in character was observed in which of the following cases?
(A) Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(B) Arnesh Kumar’s Case
(C) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(D) Selvy v. State of Karnataka
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Commonly referred to as the Shah Bano case, in which the Supreme Court delivered a judgment favouring maintenance given to an aggrieved divorced Muslim woman. |
Q21. Who has the power of summary trial of a case?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Any Magistrate of first class specially empowered by the High Court
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: A summary trial is a type of trial that aims to provide swift justice for certain types of offenses. The goal of a summary trial is to ensure that justice is delivered quickly without compromising on the principles of a fair trial and natural justice. |
Q22. Which Sections deal with the processes to compel appearance under Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Sections 61 to 90
(B) Sections 154 to 173
(C) Sections 211 to 219
(D) Sections 274 to 282
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Sections 61 to 90 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) cover processes to compel appearances, including summons. |
Q23. An offence for which, a police officer may arrest a person without warrant is known as
(A) Non-cognizable offence
(B) Cognizable offence
(C) Bailable offence
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 2(c) of CrPC defines ‘Cognizable Offence’ as an offence for which a police officer may, in accordance with the First Schedule or under any law for the time being in force, arrest without warrant. |
Q24. In a summons trial case instituted on a complaint wherein the summons has been issued to the accused, the non-appearance or death of the complainant shall entail_.
(A) Discharge of the accused
(B) Acquittal of the accused
(C) Either discharge or acquittal depending on the facts & circumstances of the case
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 256 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the non-appearance or death of a complainant in a criminal case. If the complainant doesn’t appear on the day appointed for their appearance, the court may acquit the accused unless it adjourns the hearing. |
Q25. Suppose F.I.R. is not registered by the Station House Officer. What are the options that the complainant has?
(A) Approach Superintendent of Police
(B) Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint
(C) None of these
(D) Both (Approach Superintendent of Police) & (Approach Magistrate by filing Private Complaint)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: As per Section 154(3), CrPC, any person aggrieved by a refusal on the part of an officer in-charge of police station (SHO) to record the FIR, may send the substance of such information to the Superintendent of Police concerned. |
Q26. Any police officer making an investigation under Section 160 of CrPC cannot require the attendance of a male, at a place other than the place of his residence who is
(A) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 60 years
(B) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 60 years
(C) under the age of 15 years and above the age of 65 years
(D) under the age of 18 years and above the age of 65 years
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: According to Section 160(1) of CrPC, any police officer making an investigation under this Chapter may require the attendance before himself of any person being within the limits of his own or any adjoining station who appears to be acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case. |
Q27. If someone lies before the Court on affidavit, how it can be tackled by the Advocate/s?
(A) Perjury Application can be filed.
(B) Withdraw from the case.
(C) File application to support that.
(D) Pay the fine for the same.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: A false statement in an affidavit before a Court amounts to an offence of perjury, which may be punished under section 193 of the IPC or under other relevant sections. At the same time, deliberately making a false statement in an affidavit before a court may also amount to contempt of Court. |
Q28. Proclamation for person absconding shall be published as follows: (i) It shall be publicly read in some conspicuous place of the town or village in which such person ordinarily resides; (ii) It shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the house or homestead in which such person ordinarily resides or to some conspicuous place of such town or village; (iii) A copy thereof shall be affixed to some conspicuous part of the Courthouse; (iv) The Court may also, if it thinks fit, direct a copy of the proclamation to be published in a daily newspaper circulating in the place in which such person ordinarily resides.
(A) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct.
(B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (iii), (iv) are correct.
(D) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: As per Section 82(2), CrPC, the proclamation shall be published as per all four described methods. |
Q29. Which Order of Civil Procedure Code deals with Temporary Injunction and Interlocutory Injunction?
(A) Order 38
(B) Order 39
(C) Order 40
(D) Order 41
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Order 39 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with temporary injunctions and interlocutory orders. |
Q30. A is a tradesman in Ahmedabad, B carries on business in Delhi. B, by his agent in Ahmedabad, buys goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the Western Roadways Transport Company. A delivers the goods accordingly in Ahmedabad. A may sue B for the price of the goods
(A) In Ahmedabad only
(B) In Delhi only
(C) In either Ahmedabad or Delhi
(D) Anywhere in India
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Under section 20(c), a suit can be filed where the cause of action arises wholly or in part. As a general rule, in the case of a suit on contract the cause of action arises in part where the contract is to be performed. |
Q31. Which of the following Section of Civil Procedure Code deals with the concept of Res Judicata?
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 13
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Res judicata is a Latin phrase that means ‘a thing adjudged’. It refers to a legal principle that a matter or thing that has been legally decided on its merits cannot be litigated again between the same parties. |
Q32. Mr. X, Mr. Y and Mr. Z are jointly and severally liable for 10,000 under a decree obtained by Mr. A. Mr. Y obtains a decree for 10,000 against Mr. A singly and applies for execution to the Court in which the joint-decree is being executed. Which of the following option is correct for Mr. A?
(A) Mr. A may treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18.
(B) Mr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 21 Rule 18.
(C) Mr. A cannot treat his joint-decree as cross-decree under Order 22 Rule 18.
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: This question is based on illustration (d) of Order 21 Rule 18, which deals with the provision relating to execution in cross-decrees. |
Q33. A, B and C are coparceners of Joint Hindu Family. They jointly execute a mortgage in favour of Y. Y files a suit against all of them. Summons is served to C but not to A and B. None of them appears and an ex parte decree is passed against all. A and B applied to set aside the ex parte decree. The decree will be set aside against
(A) Only C
(B) Only A&B
(C) A, B and C
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: According to Order IX Rule 13, CPC, where a decree is passed ex parte against a defendant, he may apply to the Court by which the decree was passed for an order to set it aside. |
Q34. Which of the following provision of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals with the Institution of Suits?
(A) Section 22
(B) Section 24
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 28
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 26 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 covers the institution of suits and states that every suit must be started by filing a plaint or in any other manner as prescribed by law. |
Q35. Defendant shall, within………_days from the date of service of summon on him, present a Written Statement of his defence (ORDER VIII).
(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 45
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Order VIII Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) states that a defendant must file a written statement of their defense within the time specified by the court, or at or before the first hearing. |
Q36. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) First appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
(B) Second appeal can be on substantial question of law only.
(C) Second ‘appeal can be on question of fact or law or both.
(D) First appeal may or may not be in the High Court, Second appeal has to be in the High Court.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Under Section 100, CPC, an appeal shall lie to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any Court subordinate to the High Court, if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law. |
Q37. As per Order VI, Pleading shall mean?
(A) Plaint
(B) Written Statement
(C) Both Plaint and Written Statement
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Order VI Rule 1, CPC mentions that Pleading means plaint or written statement. |
Q38. Which of the following Order deals with ‘Death, Marriage and Insolvency of Parties’?
(A) Order 20
(B) Order 21
(C) Order 22
(D) Order 23
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Order 22, CPC deals with the provisions relating to death, marriage and insolvency of parties. |
Q39. The doctrine of ‘Res Gestae’ has been discussed in which Section of the Evidence Act?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Res gestae is a Latin term that means ‘things done’ or ‘deeds’. It is used in law to refer to events or circumstances that are relevant to a case, and other events that are related to or happen at the same time as those events. |
Q40. When the liability of a person who is one of the parties to the suit depends upon the liability of a stranger to the suit, then an admission by the stranger in respect of his liability shall be an admission on the part of that person who is a party to the suit. It has been so provided under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Section 17
(B) Section 18
(C) Section 19
(D) Section 21
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 19 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with admissions made by people whose position or liability needs to be proved against a party to a suit. |
Q41. Judicial Evidence means
(A) Evidence received by Courts in proof or disproof of facts
(B) Evidence received by Police Officer
(C) Evidence received by Home Department
(D) Evidence received by Tribunal.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Judicial evidence is information presented in a court of law to prove or disprove a fact. It can include documents, witness testimony, physical evidence, expert opinions, and confessions of accused. |
Q42. Which of the following is not a ‘document’ according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) An inscription on a metal plate or stone
(B) A map or plan
(C) A caricature
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, document means any matter expressed or described upon any substance and it can be in various means of letters, figures or marks, or by more than one of those means. Documents include map, plan, caricature and letter. |
Q43. ‘Presumptions as to Dowry Deaths’ is given under which Section?
(A) 113A
(B) 113B
(C) 114A
(D) 114B
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act presumes that a person caused a woman’s dowry death if the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment by the person in question, and this occurred soon before her death. |
Q44. Which of the following is not ‘Secondary evidence’ as per Section 63 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies.
(B) Copies made from or compared with the original.
(C) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.
(D) Copies not certified under Section 63.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 lists types of documents that can be produced as secondary evidence, including certified copies, copies made from original by mechanical processes, copies made from or compared with the original, counterparts of documents, and oral accounts of contents of a document given by someone who has seen it. |
Q45. A leading question may be asked in
(A) Examination-in-chief
(B) Re-examination
(C) Cross examination
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: As per Section 143 of Indian Evidence Act, leading question may be asked in cross-examination. |
Q46. Extra Judicial Confession means
(A) Confessions made either to Police or person other than Judges and Magistrates.
(B) Confessions made before Magistrates.
(C) Confessions made before Judges.
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: An extra-judicial confession may be defined as a confession made outside the court or not in the immediate presence of the Magistrate. Such confession are given to a private person. Further a confession made to oneself is also considered as an extra-judicial confession. |
Q47. The Arbitral Tribunal shall not be bound by…………..in the determination of rules of procedure.
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) Both. (The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908) and (The Indian Evidence Act, 1872)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to Section 19(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, the arbitral tribunal shall not be bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908) or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872). |
Q48. Which of the following Section deals with ‘Arbitration Agreement’ in Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deals with Arbitration Agreement. |
Q49. Under what circumstances the arbitral proceedings can be terminated? 1. Final Arbitral award 2. Interim Award 3. Where the arbitral tribunal issues an order for the termination
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 32 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 in India deals with the termination of arbitral proceedings: Final award terminates proceedings; claimant withdrawal can lead to termination; mutual agreement to terminate; or finding that continuation is unnecessary or impossible. |
Q50. Under Section 29 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, any decision of the arbitral tribunal……….
(A) shall be made by all members
(B) shall be made by 2/3 majority of its members
(C) shall be made by the chief arbitrator
(D) shall be made by majority of its members
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 29(1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act mentions that in arbitral proceedings with more than one arbitrator, any decision of the arbitral tribunal shall be made by a majority of all its members. |
Q51. The provision for ‘maintenance pendente lite’ in Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is given in
(A) Section 22
(B) Section 23
(C) Section 24
(D) Section 25
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Maintenance pendente lite is a court order that provides temporary financial support to a spouse during a legal proceeding, such as a divorce or marital dispute. The term ‘pendente lite’ is Latin for ‘pending the litigation’. |
Q52. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 Section 2, if the husband has been insane for a period of:
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 7 years
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: According to Section 2(vi) of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, a woman married under Muslim Law is entitled to obtain a decree for dissolution of her marriage if her husband has been insane for two or more years or has a leprosy which may be curable or incurable or has a venereal disease. |
Q53. Muslim woman has option to be governed by the provisions of Sections 125 to 128 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973. Which section of The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with it?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 5 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 states that if a divorced woman and her former husband file an affidavit or declaration in the court hearing the application on the date of the first hearing, the Magistrate shall dispose of the application accordingly. |
Q54. Which of the following is not a ground of void marriage under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Bigamy
(B) Degrees of Prohibited Relationship
(C) Sapinda Relationship
(D) Child marriage
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 states that any marriage solemnized after the Act’s commencement is null and void. A decree of nullity can be issued if the marriage contravenes any of the conditions specified in clauses (i), (iv), and (v) of section 5. |
Q55. Sapinda Relationship means
(A) 3rd generation (mother), 7th generation (father)
(B) 3rd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
(C) 3rd generation (mother), 4th generation (father)
(D) 2nd generation (mother), 5th generation (father)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: A sapinda relationship is a connection between relatives through a common ancestor in Hindu law. |
Q56. Which one of the following is not a ground of divorce in the Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Mental Disorder
(B) Venereal Disease in communicable form
(C) Incurable Unsound Mind
(D) Living separately for less than three months.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Mental Disorder, Venereal disease in communicable form and incurable unsound mind are few of the grounds mentioned under Section 13 (1) (i), (iii) and (v) of Hindu Marriage Act. |
Q57. Indian Christians can obtain divorce under which of the following enactments?
(A) Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Christian Marriage Act, 1872
(C) Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(D) Special Marriage Act, 1872
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Indian Christians can obtain a divorce under the Indian Divorce Act, 1869. |
Q58. The Section 12 of Hindu Maintenance and Adoption Act, 1956 deals with
(A) A Rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties
(B) Effects of adoption
(C) Presumption as to the document relating to adoption
(D) Cancellation of adoption
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The provisions relating to the effects of adoption are governed by Section 12 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956. |
Q59. Which of the following categories of cases will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
(A) Family Pension
(B) Petitions from riot victims
(C) Neglected Children
(D) Landlord-Tenant matter
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The following types of cases are not considered Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and are not entertained by the Supreme Court of India: Landlord-tenant matters, Service matters and those pertaining to pension and gratuity, Matrimonial disputes, Personal disputes between individuals, among others. |
Q60. Who is known as Father of Public Interest Litigation in India?
(A) Justice A.N. Ray
(B) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud
(C) Justice R.S. Pathak
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Justice Bhagwati has been known as the father of public interest litigation in India due to his contribution to Public Interest Litigation jurisprudence. Justice Bhagwati was Chief Justice of India from July 12, 1985, to December 20, 1986. |
Q61. Which of the following is not a real purpose of Public Interest Litigation?
(A) Vindication of the rule of law
(B) Facilitate effective access to Justice
(C) Meaningful realization of Fundamental Rights
(D) Getting famous and making wealth
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Public interest litigation (PIL) is a legal process that protects public interest and enforces the rights of citizens, especially those who are vulnerable or marginalized. |
Q62. In Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, …………..emerged as a basic fundamental right.
(A) Right to Speedy Justice
(B) Right to Clean Environment
(C) Right to Free Legal Aid
(D) None of these
Ans. (A & C)
| Explanation: Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar was a landmark 1979 case in the Supreme Court of India that highlighted the plight of undertrial prisoners in Bihar. The case addressed the right to a speedy trial and the need for free legal services. |
Q63. Which of the following writ can be issued against usurpation of public office?
(A) Writ of Mandamus
(B) Writ of Certiorari
(C) Writ of Quo Warranto
(D) Writ of Prohibition
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The literal meaning of the writ of ‘Quo-Warranto’ is ‘By what authority or warrant’. The Supreme Court or High Court issues the writ of Quo Warranto to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person. |
Q64. Ridge v. Baldwin’s case deals with
(A) Corporation
(B) Natural Justice
(C) State Liability
(D) Delegated Legislation
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The case of Ridge v. Baldwin deals with the doctrine of natural justice which is a golden rule of law that firmly establishes fair justice to the people. |
Q65. Meaning of “Audi alteram partem”:
(A) A person cannot be condemned without being heard
(B) An adjudicating authority must give a speaking order
(C) No man can be a judge in his own cause
(D) No one should fear the courts.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Audi alteram partem is a Latin phrase that means ‘listen to the other side’ or ‘let the other side be heard as well’. It is a fundamental legal principle that ensures fairness in legal proceedings and administrative actions. |
Q66. Rules made by Bar Council of India in exercising its rule making power under_….
(A) The Advocates Act, 1951
(B) The Advocates Act, 1954
(C) The Advocates Act, 1961
(D) The Advocates Act, 1964
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 15 of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives power to the Bar Council to make rules. |
Q67. An advocate may, while practicing, take up teaching of Law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University, so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in teaching of Law ……..hours in a day do not exceed
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) .4
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: According to Rule 3(1) of the Advocates (Right to Take up Law Teaching) Rules, 1979, an advocate may, while practising, take up teaching of law in any educational institution which is affiliated to a University within the meaning of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, so long as the hours during which he is so engaged in the teaching of law do not exceed three hours in a day. |
Q68. In which of the following landmark case the advocate was held guilty of professional misconduct as he had forged the court order?
(A) Pratap Narain v. Y. P. Raheja
(B) Vikramaditya v. Smt. Jamila Khatoon
(C) Babulal Jain v. Subhash Jain
(D) Smt. P. Pankajam v. B. H. Chandrashekhar
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: In the case of Pratap Narain v. Y.P. Raheja, the Complainant alleged that the respondent handed over him a forged stay order while no stay order was passed by the Court in this case. The Committee held that the respondent was guilty of professional misconduct of serious nature as he had forged the order of the Court. |
Q69. If any advocate is aggrieved by an order of Disciplinary Committee of State Bar Council made under Section 35 of the Advocates Act or Advocate General of the State may prefer and appeal to the Bar days of Council of India within……. the date of communication of order.
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
(D) 90
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 37(1) of the Advocates Act of 1961 states that any person aggrieved by an order of a State Bar Council’s disciplinary committee can appeal to the Bar Council of India within 60 days of receiving the order. |
Q70. ABC Private Limited Company choose to convert itself into a Public Company. It can do so by altering its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association and by passing…….
(A) Ordinary Resolution
(B) Special Resolution
(C) Board Resolution
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 14(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that a company can alter its articles by a special resolution, subject to the provisions of the Act and the conditions in its memorandum. |
Q71. “Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil” is associated with
(A) Labour Law
(B) Company Law
(C) Banking Law
(D) Service Law
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Doctrine of lifting of or piercing the corporate veil is associated with Company Law. It advocates that by lifting or piercing the corporate veil one can see who are behind the managing of the company. |
Q72. Under which Section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, an appeal to National Green Tribunal (NGT) lies?
(A) Section 4A
(B) Section 5A
(C) Section 6A
(D) Section 7A
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 5A of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 allows aggrieved parties to appeal to the National Green Tribunal against decisions made by the Appellate Authority under Section 31 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986. |
Q73. Which one of the following Fundamental Duties relates to Environmental Protection?
(A) Article 51A (b)
(B) Article 51A (g)
(C) Article 51A (j)
(D) Article 51A (k)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Article 51A(g) of Indian Constitution mandates that it should be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for the living creatures. |
Q74. Mr. A who was aggrieved by an order made by Controller or an adjudicating officer, made an appeal to Cyber Appellate Tribunal. Later Mr. A aggrieved by an order of Cyber Appellate Tribunal, may prefer an appeal…………
(A) In any District Court
(B) In Higher Tribunal
(C) Only in High Court
(D) Only in Supreme Court
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 62 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 allows a person to appeal to the High Court against a decision or order of the Cyber Appellate Tribunal (CAT). |
Q75. Mr. X, a person who is intended by Mr. Y an originator to receive the electronic record is, under the IT Act, known as
(A) Intermediary
(B) Originators Agent
(C) Addressee
(D) Key Holder
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 2(1)(b) of the IT Act, 2000 defines ‘addressee’ as a person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record but does not include any intermediary. |
Q76. The minimum number of members required for registration of a trade union is—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 4 of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 deals with the mode of registration. Sub-section (1) states that any seven or more members of a Trade Union may, by subscribing their names to the rules of Trade Union and by otherwise complying with the provisions of this Act with respect to the registration, applying for registration of the Trade Union under this Act. |
Q77. The text of the Certified Standing Orders shall be prominently posted by the employer in and in the language understood by the majority of his workmen.
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Devanagari Script
(D) Language specified in Eight Schedule of the Constitution
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The text of the certified standing orders must be posted by the employer in English and in the language understood by the majority of the workmen. |
Q78. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as_……
(A) Occupier
(B) Managing Director
(C) Chairman
(D) Manager
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 2(n) of the Factories Act defines the term ‘occupier’. Occupier of a factory means a person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory. |
Q79. If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified_….. to carry out the prescribed duties.
(A) Safety officer
(B) Welfare officer
(C) Development officer
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 40B of the Factories Act, 1948 is about the appointment of safety officers in factories. The occupier of a factory must employ safety officers if the State Government requires it. |
Q80. Suppose road accident occurs, then being an Advocate what is the correct way approaching the situation?
(A) FIR > Petition > Summon to Insurance Company
(B) Petition > FIR > Summon to Insurance Company
(C) Summon to Insurance Company > Petition > FIR
(D) FIR Summon to Insurance Company > Petition
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: In case of road accident, the approach of an advocate whilst advising the client is: File a police complaint seeking registration of FIR before the appropriate Police Station, then File a Claim Petition under Section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 before the appropriate Motor Accident Claim Tribunal and make insurance company one of the defendant to the petition. |
Q81. The principle of “Ubi jus ibi idem remedium” was recognized in
(A) Winterbottom v. Wright
(B) Chapman v. Pickersgill
(C) Ashby v. White
(D) Rylands v. Fletcher
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The 1703 case of Ashby v. White established that a plaintiff can recover damages when another party hinders their civil rights, even if there is no physical harm. |
Q82. Gloucester Grammar School Case is a landmark case based on which of the following maxim?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine damnum
(C) Volenti non fit injuria
(D) Audi alteram partem
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Gloucester Grammar School case is a landmark case that is referred in all situations and is based on the legal maxim Damnum sine Injuria. In English, this maxim refers to a situation where there is a damage caused without causing any legal injury. |
Q83. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 shall have the jurisdiction to complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds………
(A) 1 Crore
(B) 10 Crores
(C) 50 Crores
(D) 100 Crores
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: According to Section 58 (1)(a)(i) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration exceeds rupees ten crore. |
Q84. Under Section 41 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 an appeal from the order of District Commission lies to…….
(A) State Commission
(B) Consumer Tribunal
(C) National Commission
(D) High Court
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 41 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 allows a person to appeal an order made by the District Commission to the State Commission. |
Q85. For an individual to be deemed to be resident in India in any previous year one of the condition is:
(A) If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year.
(B) If he is in India for a period of 180 days or more during the previous year.
(C) If he is in India for a period of 181 days or more during the previous year.
(D) If he is in India for a period of 360 days or more during the previous year.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: According to Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, an individual is said to be a resident in the tax year if he/she is physically present in India for a period of 182 days or more in the tax year; or physically present in India for a period of 60 days or more during the relevant tax year and 365 days or more in aggregate in four preceding tax years (60-day rule). |
Q86. Mr. Kapoor purchased a residential house in January, 2021 for 80,00,000. He sold the house in April, 2022 for 94,00,000. In this case the gain of 14,00,000 arising on account of sale of residential house will be charged to tax under which of the following head?
(A) Income from capital gains
(B) Income from house property
(C) Income from profits and gains from business or profession
(D) Income from other sources.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Any profit or gain arising from transfer of capital asset held as investments are chargeable to tax under the head ‘capital gains’. The gain can be on account of short-term and long-term capital gains. |
Q87. Mr. Manjot is a trader supplying goods from his M/s Singh Traders. The office of the firm is located in Delhi whereas its godowns are located in the State of Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) respectively. M/s Singh Traders made following intra-State supplies from different States during the current financial year: (i) Delhi – Taxable Supplies: 21,00,000 (ii) Punjab-Exempted Supplies: 6,00,000 (iii) Uttar Pradesh- Taxable and Exempted Supplies: 3,00,000 each respectively. (iv) J&K-Taxable and Exempted Supplies: 8,00,000 and 3,00,000 respectively. Ascertain the States in which Mr. Manjot is required to take registration under GST.
(A) Delhi, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and J&K
(B) Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and J&K
(C) Delhi and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Delhi
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 22(1) of CGST Act, 2017 mandates that every supplier shall be liable to be registered in the State or Union Territory from where he makes the supply of goods or services or both if his aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds Rs. 20 lakhs. |
Q88. The primary GST slabs for any regular taxpayers are presently pegged at
(A) 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 26%
(B) 0%, 6%, 12%, 18%, 28%
(C) 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%
(D) 0%, 5%, 12%, 16%, 28%
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: There are four main GST slabs: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%. Essential goods and services are taxed at lower rates, while luxury and sin goods fall under the higher 28% slab, ensuring a balanced taxation system. |
Q89. B, the proprietor of a newspaper, publishes at A’s request, a libel upon C in the paper, and A agrees to indemnify B against the consequences of the publication, and all costs and damages of any action in respect thereof. B is sued by C and has to pay damages, and also incurs expenses. Decide in the light of Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(A) A is not liable to B upon indemnity.
(B) A is liable to B upon indemnity.
(C) A is not liable to C upon indemnity.
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 224 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 states that an employer is not liable to indemnify an agent for the consequences of a criminal act the agent was employed to do. |
Q90. A person whom the agent names to act for the principal in the business of agency under the express or implied authority to name, is called……….
(A) Sub-agent
(B) Substituted Agent
(C) Agent
(D) Procured Agent
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 194 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 defines the relationship between a principal and a person appointed by an agent to act in the agency business. |
Q91. A ……..injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit, the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from, the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which could be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff.
(A) Temporary
(B) Perpetual
(C) Both Temporary and Perpetual
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: As per Section 37(2) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit and the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which would be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff. |
Q92. According to Section 5 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided in……..
(A) The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(D) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with provision relating to recovery of specific immovable property. It specifically provides that a person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. |
Q93. Where the mortgagor delivers possession of the mortgaged property to the mortgagee, and authorises him to retain such possession until payment of the mortgage-money, and to receive the rents and profits accruing from the property in lieu of interest, or in payment of the mortgage-money, the transaction is called……… an ……_mortgage.
(A) Conditional
(B) English
(C) Simple
(D) Usufructuary
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: A usufructuary mortgage is a type of mortgage where the borrower gives the lender possession of their property until the loan is paid off. In exchange, the lender receives the income from the property, such as rent or profits, to pay off the mortgage. |
Q94. In which of the following cases it was decided that a contract with minor is void?
(A) Carlill v. Carbolic Smokes Ball Co.
(B) Chinnaih v. Ramaiah
(C) Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
(D) Harvey v. Facey
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The court in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose held that agreements with minors are void ab initio, providing protection for minors from incurring liabilities beyond their capacity to contract. |
Q95. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to ‘Declaratory Decrees’ under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
(A) Section 34 of the said Act deals with it.
(B) It is discretionary in nature.
(C) Both, (Section 34 of the said Act deals with it) and (It is discretionary in nature)
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 allows a person to file a lawsuit and have a court declare their legal rights or status. It is discretionary in nature. |
Q96. Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as defined under The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Promissory Note
(B) Bill of Exchange
(C) Cheque
(D) Billing Receipt
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: A negotiable instrument is a signed document that promises a payment to a specified person or assignee. Promissory Note, Bill of Exchange and Cheque are the defined negotiable instruments under the Act. |
Q97. According to Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 appropriate Government can acquire the land for which of the following purposes? 1. for strategic purposes relating to naval, military, air force, and armed forces of the Union 2. project for water harvesting and water conservation structures, sanitation 3. project for project affected families 4. project for sports, health care, tourism, transportation or space programme
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 allows the government to acquire land for public purposes, including warehousing, cold storage facilities, industrial corridor projects, water harvesting and water conservation structures, sanitation, housing, planned development of village sites, residential purposes, and defence and national security. |
Q98. ‘Specified person’ under Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 means any person other than……….
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) Government company
(C) Association of persons or trust or society wholly or partially aided by the appropriate Government or controlled by the appropriate Government
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 defines a ‘specified person’ as any person other than the appropriate government, government company, or association of persons, trust, or society. |
Q99. Who shall be the Registrar of Trade Marks for the purposes of Trade Marks Act, 1999?
(A) Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
(B) Controller-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
(C) Director-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks
(D) Director-General of Copyright, Designs and Trade Marks
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: According to Section 3(1) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, appoint a person to be known as the Controller-General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks, who shall be the Registrar of Trade Mark for the purposes of this Act. |
Q100. Which one of the following is not a type’s of IPR?
(A) Copyright
(B) Patents
(C) Designs
(D) Historical Indications
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The main types of Intellectual Property Rights include patents, trademarks, copyrights, trade secrets, industrial designs, geographical indications, and plant variety rights. ‘Historical Indications’ is not a type of IPR. |
