Q1. For what duration is a woman entitled to leave with wages for tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Maternity Benefit Act of 1961 allows a woman to take two weeks of paid leave after a tubectomy operation. To be eligible, she must provide the required proof. |
Q2. What should be the minimum number of workers originally employed in any factory for having at least one canteen in the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) 100 workers
(B) 150 workers
(C) 200 workers
(D) 250 workers
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to the Factories Act, 1948, a factory must have at least 250 workers to be required to provide a canteen. |
Q3. Who among the following is not included in the definition of a workman as per the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
(A) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of 6,000.
(B) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of 8,000.
(C) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of 10,000.
(D) A supervisor drawing monthly salary of 12,000.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The Industrial Disputes Act of 1947 (ID Act) excludes from the definition of a workman: people employed in the Army, Navy, Air Force, or police service; people employed in a managerial or administrative capacity; and people employed in a supervisory capacity and drawing wages of more than INR 6,500. |
Q4. Who has defined tort as ‘tortious liability arises from the breach of duty primarily fixed by law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages’?
(A) Lindsell
(B) Pollock
(C) Salmond
(D) Winfield
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Winfield defined tortious liability in the following words: ‘Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law; this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages’. |
Q5. Gloucester Grammar School case relates to which of the following important maxims?
(A) Damnum sine injuria
(B) Injuria sine demno
(C) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(D) Volenti non fit injuria
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Gloucester Grammar School case is related to the legal maxim damnum sine injuria, which means that damage can occur without any act of injustice or violation of a legal right. |
Q6. Which of the following provision of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 relates to no fault liability?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 151
(C) Section 162
(D) Section 128
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act of 1988 deals with liability to pay compensation without fault in certain cases. |
Q7. How many consumer rights are identified under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Consumer Protection Act of 2019 identifies six consumer rights: Right to safety, Right to be informed, Right to choose, Right to be heard, Right to seek redressal, and Right to consumer education. |
Q8. Which of the following body constituted under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is authorised to render advice on promotion and protection of consumers’ right under the Act?
(A) Central Consumer Protection Authority
(B) Central Consumer Protection Council
(C) State Consumer Protection Authority
(D) State Consumer Protection Council
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: The Central Consumer Protection Council (CCPC) is an advisory council established by the Central Government of India to protect consumers. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is a regulatory authority that was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 to enforce consumer rights. |
Q9. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law?
(A) Article 246
(B) Article 256
(C) Article 260
(D) Article 265
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Article 265 of the Indian Constitution states that no tax can be levied or collected except by authority of law. |
Q10. Which of the following would be the first previous year in case of a business or profession newly set up on 31st March, 2020 as per the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Start from 1st April, 2019 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(B) Start from 31st March, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
(C) Start from 1st April, 2020 and will end on 31st December, 2020.
(D) Start from 1st January, 2020 and will end on 31st March, 2020.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The starting of an assessment year is counted from 1st April. Hence the previous year of a newly started business would be date of commencement of the business and 31st March of the following year. |
Q11. As per the Income Tax Act, 1961 a person is said to be resident of India in any previous year if he had been in India for a period of the following number of days in the previous year:
(A) 180 days
(B) 182 days
(C) 184 days
(D) 186 days
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: An individual would be resident in India if he stays for 182 days or more in India during the previous year or if he stays for 60 days during the previous year and 365 days in the 4 years preceding previous year. |
Q12. Income is defined under which of the following provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) Section 2(31)
(B) Section 2(24)
(C) Section 2(9)
(D) Section 3
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act defines income as including the following: Salaries. Any salary, wages, annuity, pension, gratuity, or other payment received by an individual from his employer is considered as income for taxation purposes. |
Q13. Which of the following is not a fraud as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) A promise made without intention of performing it.
(B) An active concealment of fact by one having knowledge of the fact.
(C) Mere silence if not duty bound to speak.
(D) Any act or omission law specifically declares to be fraudulent.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Indian Contract Act of 1872 defines fraud as any act intended to deceive or induce another party to enter into a contract. Mere silence is generally not fraud unless there is a duty to speak. |
Q14. Which of the following statement is correct if A, intending to deceive B, falsely represents that five hundred maunds of indigo are made annually at A’s factory, and thereby induces B to buy the factory?
(A) Contract is void ab initio.
(B) Contract is voidable at the option of (A).
(C) Contract is voidable at the option of (B).
(D) Contract is voidable at the option of (A) & (B)
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: A voidable contract remains valid until the dissatisfied party cancels it. The party who can void the contract can choose to ratify it and perform the obligations. |
Q15. Which of the following injunction can be granted only by the decree made at hearing and upon the merit of the suit?
(A) Temporary injunction
(B) Perpetual injunction
(C) Mandatory injunction
(D) Prohibitory injunction
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 37(2) of the Specific Relief Act mentions that a perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit, the defendant is thereby perpetually enjoined from the assertion of a right, or from the commission of an act, which would be contrary to the rights of the plaintiff. |
Q16. A stipulation in a bond for payment of compound interest on failure to pay simple interest at the same rate as was payable upon the principal is not a penalty within the meaning of which of the following provision of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(A) Section 73
(B) Section 74
(C) Section 75
(D) Section 76
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act of 1872 deals with the liability of a party for breach of contract when a sum is named in the contract or there is a penalty stipulated. |
Q17. What is the default interest payable under Section 63A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 8% per annum
(C) 9% per annum
(D) No-default rate prescribed.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 63A(2) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 states that a mortgagor is liable to pay the cost of improvements made to mortgaged property if the following conditions are met: the improvement was made at the cost of the mortgagee, the improvement was necessary to prevent the property from deterioration or destruction, the improvement was necessary to prevent the security from becoming insufficient, the improvement was made in compliance with a lawful order of a public servant or public authority, and there is no contract to the contrary. |
Q18. Which of the following is the time limit given under Section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(A) Life of the transferee
(B) A period of 18 years from the date of transfer.
(C) Either (A) or (B) whichever is longer
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 17(1) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is about the direction for accumulation of income from a property. If the terms of a property transfer direct that the income be accumulated for a period longer than the transferor’s life or 18 years from the transfer date, the direction is void to the extent that it exceeds the longer of the two periods. |
Q19. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Promissory note
(B) Hundi
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Cheque
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Hundi is not a negotiable instrument under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881. Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 defines the term ‘negotiable instrument’ as a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer. |
Q20. In the light of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, at what rate interest will be charged if the rate of interest is not mentioned on the negotiable instruments?
(A) 6% per annum
(B) 10% per annum
(C) 18% per annum
(D) 20% per annum
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 80 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 states that if the instrument does not specify an interest rate, interest is calculated at 18% per annum. |
Q21. Within what period from the date of publication of the declaration, if no award is made, the entire proceedings for the acquisition of land shall lapse as per the Fair Compensation and Right to Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
(C) 18 months
(D) 24 months
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 25 of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFCTLARR) Act, 2013 states that the Collector must make an award within 12 months of the declaration’s publication. If no award is made within that time, the land acquisition proceedings lapse. |
Q22. What is the minimum percentage of affected families that need to give their prior consent for acquiring land for private companies as per the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013?
(A) 75%
(B) 80%
(C) 90%
(D) 100%
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 2(2) of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 states that a private company can purchase land in rural or urban areas through private negotiations with the owner. However, if a private company wants to acquire a part of an area for a public purpose, the rehabilitation and resettlement entitlements apply to the entire area. |
Q23. Imagine an IPL team sets up a company to sell its own range of clothes. What type of intellectual property can the team use to show that the clothes are made by them?
(A) Patents
(B) Geographical Indications
(C) Trademarks
(D) Registered designs
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The team can brand their clothes with a trademark to prove that they are made by them. |
Q24. How long do patents usually last for?
(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 50 years
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: A patent is typically valid for 20 years from the date the patent application is filed. The patent gives the inventor the right to stop others from making, using, or selling their invention. |
Q25. The concept of freedom of trade and commerce mentioned in the Indian Constitution is motivated from the experience of the following country?
(A) America
(B) Australia
(C) Ireland
(D) United Kingdom
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: In the Indian Constitution, the part dealing with Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the States was taken from Australia. |
Q26. Which of the following writ is issued to enforce the performance of public duties by the authority?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Certiorari
(D) Prohibition
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: A Writ of mandamus (which means ‘we command’ in Latin), is ‘issued by a superior court to compel a lower court or a government officer to perform mandatory or purely ministerial duties correctly’. The Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 of the Constitution is empowered to issue a Writ of mandamus. |
Q27. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act had made the provision for publishing Hindi Translation of the Constitution?
(A) 52nd Amendment
(B) 54th Amendment
(C) 56th Amendment
(D) 58th Amendment
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The 58th Amendment to the Constitution of India, passed in 1987, addressed the use of Hindi and English in official documents, legal proceedings, and government communications. |
Q28. Which of the following is the landmark judgment on the Colourable legislation?
(A) State of Bihar v. Kameshwar Singh
(B) M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
(C) State of Karnataka v. Union of India
(D) Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The doctrine of colourable legislation is a legal principle that aims at the prevention of excessive and unconstitutional use of the legislative authority of the government. In the case of State of Bihar v. Kamleshwar Singh (AIR 1952 (SC) 252), the issue arose before the Hon’ble Supreme Court was whether the Bihar Land Reforms Act of 1950 is a colorable legislation. |
Q29. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in light of the advisory opinion received in Re Berubari case?
(A) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955
(B) The Constitution Amendment Act, 1956
(C) The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960
(D) The Constitution (Eleventh Amendment) Act, 1961
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 1960 was passed to transfer certain territories from India to Pakistan as part of a settlement of border disputes between the two countries. |
Q30. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India is relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central law and a State law?
(A) Article 248
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 254
(D) Article 256
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Article 254 of the Indian Constitution addresses the inconsistencies between laws made by the Parliament and the State legislatures. It establishes the doctrine of repugnancy, which deals with situations where two pieces of legislation conflict with each other and produce different outcomes when applied to the same facts. |
Q31. What transition period was provided in the Constitution of India for changing official language of Union from English to Hindi?
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years (Seventh)
(D) 25 years
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Article 343 of the Constitution of India states that the official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script. English was to continue to be used for official purposes for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution. |
Q32. In which of the following case it was held that there could be no reservation on single post in the cadre?
(A) Chakradhar Paswan v. State of Bihar
(B) K.C. Vasanth Kumar v. State of Karnataka
(C) A.B.S.K. Sangh (Rly) v. Union of India
(D) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: In the 1988 case Chakradhar Paswan v. State of Bihar, the Supreme Court of India ruled on the appointment of Dr. Chakradhar Paswan to the post of Deputy Director (Homoeopathic) in the Directorate of Indigenous Medicines. |
Q33. Sexual harassment of a working woman at her place of work may also be considered as the violation of which of the following provision of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 19(1)(b)
(B) Article 19(1)(d)
(C) Article 19(1)(e)
(D) Article 19(1)(g)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: The case of Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan [AIR 1997 (SC) 3001] is a landmark judgment in the area of sexual harassment of women at workplace. Article 19(1)(g) of the Indian Constitution affirms the right of all citizens to be employed in any profession of their choosing or to practice their own trade or business. |
Q34. Which of the following doctrine has been applied to resolve the conflict between Articles 25(2)(b) and 26(b) of the Constitution of India?
(A) Doctrine of Harmonious construction
(B) Doctrine of Casus Omissus
(C) Doctrine of Liberal interpretation
(D) Doctrine of Pith and substance
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The doctrine of harmonious construction is a method of interpreting laws and statutes when there are inconsistencies or conflicts between them. Goal: To achieve harmony between the provisions of a law or statute. |
Q35. In which of the following situations Indian Penal Code, 1860 may not apply? (i) An offence committed by Indians outside India. (ii) An offence committed by any person on any ship registered in India. (iii) Any person committing offence targeting computer resources located in any country.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Only (i) & (ii)
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 4 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 extends the application of the IPC to extra-territorial offenses: Any citizen of India committing an offense outside of India; any person on a ship or aircraft registered in India, wherever it may be; any person committing an offense outside of India that targets a computer resource located in India. |
Q36. How many types of punishment are currently existing under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 53 of Indian Penal Code prescribes five punishments to which offenders are liable which are death, imprisonment for life, imprisonment which is of two description namely rigorous and simple, forfeiture of property and fine. |
Q37. A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. In the course of such fencing, while playing fairly, A hurts Z severely. Which of the following offence is committed by A?
(A) Hurt
(B) Attempt to murder
(C) Grievous hurt
(D) No offence
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: A has committed no offence. This question is based on the illustration of Section 87 of IPC which provides for the acts done without intention to cause death. |
Q38. In which of the following situations right of private defence can not extend to causing death?
(A) In case when an assault is causing apprehension of murder.
(B) In case when assault is reflecting intention of committing rape.
(C) In case when assault is reflecting intention of causing simple hurt.
(D) In case when assault is reflecting intention of gratifying unnatural lust.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 100 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the right of private defense and the circumstances in which the use of force, including causing death, is justifiable. The right of private defense to causing death applies in: assault that could reasonably lead to death or grievous hurt, assault to commit rape, gratifying unnatural lust, kidnapping or abduction, and wrongfully confining a person when they cannot seek help from public authorities for their release. |
Q39. For which of the following Section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the word “benefit” does not include pecuniary benefits?
(A) Section 89
(B) Section 155
(C) Section 156
(D) Section 370
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Explanation to Section 92 of IPC mentions that mere pecuniary benefit is not benefit within the meaning of the sections 88, 89 and 92. |
Q40. X intentionally pulls up a woman’s veil without her consent intending to annoy her. As per the Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following offence he has committed?
(A) Hurt
(B) Criminal force
(C) Assault
(D) Grievous hurt
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: This question is based on illustration (f) of Section 350, IPC which deals with Criminal Force. |
Q41. What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for a person who maims any minor in order that such minor may be used for the purposes of begging?
(A) Imprisonment for 5 years and fine
(B) Imprisonment for 7 years and fine
(C) Imprisonment for 10 years and fine
(D) Imprisonment for life and fine
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to Section 363A(2) of IPC, whoever maims any minor in order that such minor may be employed or used for the purposes of begging shall be punishable with imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. |
Q42. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives him money. Which of the following punishment may be given to X for the act committed by him as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Imprisonment upto 2 years, or with fine or with both.
(B) Imprisonment upto 3 years, or with fine or with both.
(C) Imprisonment upto 5 years, or with fine or with both.
(D) Imprisonment upto 7 years, or with fine or with both.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines extortion as the act of intentionally putting someone in fear of injury and then dishonestly inducing them to deliver property or something valuable. |
Q43. Which of the following sentence is an Assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised to as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Sentence of death.
(B) Sentence of imprisonment for life.
(C) Sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years.
(D) Sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: As per Section 28(3) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, an Assistant Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years. |
Q44. A person arrested by a private person for committing a non-bailable and cognizable offence shall be re-arrested by a police officer if such person comes under which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 41A
(C) Section 42
(D) Section 43
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Under Section 43 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, any private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender, and, without unnecessary delay, shall make over or cause to be made over any person so arrested to a police officer. |
Q45. Under which of the following situation wife is not entitled for maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Husband presumes that wife is living in adultery.
(B) Voluntarily wife refuses to live with husband.
(C) Wife living separately as husband keeps a mistress.
(D) Wife is forcefully removed from the house.
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 125(4) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 states that a wife is not entitled to receive maintenance, interim maintenance, or expenses of proceeding from her husband if she: is living in adultery, refuses to live with her husband without a sufficient reason, or is living separately by mutual consent. |
Q46. Which of the following procedure is dealt with under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Medical examination of the victim of rape.
(B) Attendance of witness by police officer.
(C) Recording of confession statement.
(D) Recording of first information report by police officer.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 164A of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973 deals with the medical examination of the victim of rape. |
Q47. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to diary of proceedings in investigation as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) The statements of witnesses recorded during investigation shall be inserted in the diary.
(B) The diary shall be duly paginated.
(C) The diary may be used as evidence.
(D) Can be used by the police officers to refresh memory.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 172 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) of 1973 requires police officers to keep a daily record of their investigations, known as a case diary. The case diary is a continuous record of the investigation’s progress, and is the only record that can be used by different officers who take charge of the investigation. |
Q48. In which of the following cases manner of committing offence is not required to be mentioned in the charge as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) A is accused of the theft of a certain article at a certain time and place.
(B) A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place.
(C) A is accused of disobeying a direction of the law with intent to save B from punishment.
(D) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 213 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 states that the charge against an accused must include details about the manner in which the alleged offense was committed if the particulars in sections 211 and 212 do not give the accused enough notice of the charges. |
Q49. Which of the following offences may be tried summarily as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Offence under Section 454 of the IPC.
(B) Offence under Section 504 of the IPC.
(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
(D) Offence punishable with imprisonment.
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 260 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 gives certain magistrates the power to try certain offenses in a summary manner. |
Q50. Which of the following Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for reference to High Court?
(A) Section 275
(B) Section 325
(C) Section 383
(D) Section 395
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 395 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for reference to High Court. |
Q51. A person accused of the following offence may not be granted bail under section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973: (i) Accused of offence under section 376AB of the IPC. (ii) Accused of offence under section 376DA of the IPC. (iii) Accused of offence under section 376DB of the IPC.
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (i)
(D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) deals with the grant of anticipatory bail to a person who apprehends arrest for a non-bailable offense. |
Q52. Which of the following act if done by any Magistrate, even in good faith without being empowered, shall vitiate the proceedings as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Tender a pardon under section 306 of CrPC.
(B) Recall a case and try it under section 410 of the CrPC.
(C) Attaches property under section 83 of the CrPC.
(D) Hold an inquest under section 176 of the CrPC.
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 461 – Irregularities which vitiate proceedings. |
Q53. Which of the following is material for deciding the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the light of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Averments made in the plaint
(B) Averments made in the written statement
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Averments made in the plaint is material for deciding the jurisdiction of civil court under Civil Procedure Code. Refer Order VII Rule 11, CPC which deals with the rejection of plaint. |
Q54. Which of the following cannot be considered as the suit of civil nature for Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Suit for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.
(B) Suit for rights of franchise.
(C) Suit for specific reliefs.
(D) Suit relating to rights of worship.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) states that courts have the jurisdiction to try all civil suits, unless they are expressly or impliedly barred. |
Q55. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 makes the doctrine of res judicata applicable in representative suit?
(A) Section 11, Explanation V
(B) Section 11, Explanation VI
(C) Section 11, Explanation VII
(D) Section 11, Explanation VIII
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Explanation VI to Section 11, CPC mentions that where persons litigate bona fide in respect of a public right or of a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, all persons interested in such right shall, for the purposes of this section, be deemed to claim under the persons so litigating. |
Q56. In which of the following situations a court will not issue summons for personal appearance to the defendant?
(A) If defendant resides within the local limit of the court’s jurisdiction.
(B) If defendant resides within 40 miles from the court.
(C) If defendant resides 250 miles away from the court in an area having public conveyance available.
(D) Woman to whom Section 132 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Order V, Rule 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 outlines the procedure for appointing a pleader in a civil suit. |
Q57. In which of the following situation plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Dismissal of suit where summons not served in consequence of plaintiff’s failure to pay costs.
(B) Dismissal of suit because neither party appeared.
(C) Dismissal of suit in because plaintiff did not appear.
(D) Dismissal of suit because plaintiff did not apply for fresh summons within given time limit once it returned unserved.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Order IX, Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) states that if the defendant appears in court for a hearing but the plaintiff does not, the court must dismiss the suit unless the defendant admits the claim or part of it. |
Q58. How many times at max. may an adjournment be granted to a party during hearing of the suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) No limit prescribed
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: As per Order XVII Rule 1 of CPC, the court may, if the sufficient cause is shown, at any stage of the suit grant time to the parties or to any of them and may from time to time adjourn the hearing of the suit for reasons to be recorded in writing. |
Q59. Which of the following Amendment Act made the provision in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to produce a witness without a summons?
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
(C) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
(D) Such provision does not exist.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act of 1976 substantially implemented recommendations made by the Law Commission on the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. The Act made amendments to several sections of the Code. |
Q60. Which of the following is not included in the word “costs” as provided under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) The expenses of the witnesses incurred.
(B) Legal fees and expenses incurred.
(C) Fooding and lodging expenses incurred.
(D) Any other expenses incurred in connection with the proceedings.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 35(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) of 1908 grants the court the discretion to determine the costs of a suit. |
Q61. What period is prescribed under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for defendant to enter an appearance for filing address for service of notice on him in case of a suit where summary procedure is to be applied?
(A) Seven days from the date of receiving of summons.
(B) Ten days from the date of receiving of summons.
(C) Fifteen days from the date of receiving of summons.
(D) Thirty days from the date of receiving of summons.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Order XXXVII Rule 3(1) of CPC mentions that in a suit to which this Order applies, the plaintiff shall, together with the summons under rule 2, serve on the defendant a copy of the plaint and annexures thereto and the defendant may, at any time within ten days of such service, enter an appearance either in person or by pleader. |
Q62. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the appellate court may remit an issue for trial to lower court?
(A) Order XLI Rule 23
(B) Order XLI Rule 23-A
(C) Order XLI Rule 24
(D) Order XLI Rule 25
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Order XLI Rule 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) governs when an appellate court can frame new issues and remand a case to the trial court. |
Q63. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him. Which of the following will not be considered as relevant fact forming part of the same transaction as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Whatever said by A or B at the time of beating.
(B) Whatever done by A or B at the time of beating.
(C) Whatever said by by-standers at the time of beating.
(D) Whatever said by A or B a day before the day of beating.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872 states that facts that are connected to a fact in issue and form part of the same transaction are relevant. This is true even if the facts occurred at different times and places. |
Q64. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that the confession to police-officer shall not be proved against him?
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
(D) Section 27
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that no confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence. |
Q65. Under which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 dying declaration may be admitted as evidence?
(A) Section 25
(B) Section 29
(C) Section 32
(D) Section 37
Ans. (** (Disputed))
| Explanation: Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the relevance of statements made by people who are dead, cannot be found, or are otherwise unable to give evidence. Dying declaration falls under Section 32(1). |
Q66. Which of the following is correct according to the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 pertaining to proof of contents of the documents?
(A) Contents of the documents shall be proved by primary evidence.
(B) Contents of the documents may be proved by secondary evidence.
(C) Contents of the documents shall be proved by both primary and secondary evidence.
(D) Contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: According to Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act, the contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence. |
Q67. Which of the following is a correct statement as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Leading questions may be asked in examination-in-chief.
(B) Leading questions may be asked in cross-examination.
(C) Leading questions may be asked in re-examination.
(D) Leading question cannot be asked in cross-examination.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Leading questions are allowed during cross-examination. Cross-examination is used to test a witness’s credibility, and leading questions are a primary way to examine hostile witnesses. |
Q68. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India clarify the admissibility of electronic record as evidence?
(A) Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer
(B) State of Haryana v. Jai Singh
(C) State of Maharashtra v. Natwarlal Damodardas Soni
(D) State of Punjab v. Jagir Singh
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The 2014 Supreme Court of India case Anvar P.V. v. P.K. Basheer & Ors. (2014 10 SCC 473) established several principles regarding the admissibility of electronic evidence. |
Q69. Which of the following is incorrect statement in the light of Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Confession always go against a person making it.
(B) Admissions are conclusive as to the matters admitted.
(C) Admissions may operate as an estoppel.
(D) Confession is statement written or oral which is direct admission of suit.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 31 of Indian Evidence Act prescribes that admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but they may operate as estoppels under the provisions hereinafter contained. |
Q70. Which of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the hearsay rule?
(A) Section 32(1)
(B) Section 32(2)
(C) Section 32(3)
(D) Section 32(5)
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act which deals with the provisions relating to dying declaration is an exception to the hearsay rule. |
Q71. Which of the following is not a recognized alternate dispute resolution mechanism under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
(C) Lok Adalat
(D) Negotiation
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Negotiation is a structured communication process between parties in a legal dispute or transaction to reach a mutually agreeable solution. It is a problem-solving technique that can help to resolve disputes and build prosperous collaborations. |
Q72. Which of the following is incorrect statement with respect to Lok Adalat?
(A) No court fee is required in Lok Adalat.
(B) Lok Adalat can deal with all civil & criminal matters.
(C) Award of Lok Adalat is a deemed decree.
(D) No appeal against the award of Lok Adalat is allowed.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The Lok Adalat can deal with all Civil Cases, Matrimonial Disputes, Land Disputes, Partition/Property Disputes, Labour Disputes, etc., and non-compoundable criminal Cases. |
Q73. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to arbitration agreement as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) Arbitration agreement may be written as well as oral.
(B) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of a separate agreement.
(C) Arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract.
(D) Arbitration agreement may be for all or certain disputes which may rise between the parties.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 defines an arbitration agreement and covers some of its essential ingredients. The agreement must be in writing and signed by both parties. |
Q74. In which of the following circumstances an arbitrator may not be challenged as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) When a justifiable doubt as to his independence arises.
(B) When a justifiable doubt as to his impartiality arises.
(C) When he possesses the qualifications agreed by the party.
(D) When he becomes ineligible as per the Seventh Schedule of the Act.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Section 12 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act of 1996 is a key provision that helps to maintain the impartiality and independence of arbitrators in India. |
Q75. When may two persons be said to be related to each other by half-blood in accordance with the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) When they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.
(B) When they are descended from a common ancestor by different wives.
(C) When they are descended from a common ancestress by different husbands.
(D) When they are not descended from a common ancestor at all.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: As per Section 3(c) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, two persons are said to be related to each other by half-blood when they are descended from a common ancestor but by different wives. |
Q76. Which of the following is generally not considered as a valid condition for a Hindu marriage as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) The parties should not have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
(B) The parties should be within the degrees of prohibited relationship.
(C) The parties should not be sapindas of each other.
(D) The parties should not be suffering from epilepsy.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 outlines the conditions that must be met for a marriage between two Hindus to be valid. |
Q77. Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for the following: (i) Grounds for restitution of conjugal rights (ii) Grounds for judicial separation (iii) Grounds for divorce
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (i)
(D) Only (iii)
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 deals with the grounds for divorce and judicial separation. |
Q78. What is the meaning of the batil marriage in Muslim Law?
(A) Valid marriage
(B) Void marriage
(C) Voidable marriage
(D) Irregular marriage
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Under Muslim Law, Batil marriage is considered as void marriage. The marriage being void ab initio creates no rights or obligations and the children born out of such marriage are considered as illegitimate. |
Q79. What is ‘a contract of marriage which may be dissolved by the wife under a power delegated to her’ called under the Muslim Law?
(A) Talaq-ul-sunnat
(B) Talaq-ul-biddat
(C) Talaq-i-tafweez
(D) Talaq-a-hasan
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Talaq-i-tafweez, also known as delegated divorce, is a type of divorce in Muslim law that allows a husband to give his wife or another person the power to pronounce divorce. |
Q80. A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the following law: (i) The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (ii) The Special Marriage Act, 1954
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) Only (ii) is correct.
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: A Hindu boy and a Hindu girl may be married under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and Special Marriage Act, 1954. |
Q81. Through which of the following Amendment Act the rights in the coparcenary property is made available to a girl child as well?
(A) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2002
(B) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2004
(C) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(D) The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2006
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 was enacted to remove gender discrimination in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. The amendment was passed on September 5, 2005 and came into effect on September 9, 2005. |
Q82. What should be the age difference between the adoptive father and his adopted daughter for a valid adoption?
(A) 15 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 21 years
(D) No specific age difference required.
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Under Section 11(iii) of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 Act 1955, if the adoption is by a male and the to be adopted is a female, the adoptive person father is at least twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted. |
Q83. Which of the following case may be considered as the first reported case of PIL in India?
(A) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
(B) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
(C) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
(D) Kalyaneshwari v. Union of Inda
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar was a 1979 public interest litigation (PIL) case in the Supreme Court of India that highlighted the plight of undertrial prisoners in Bihar. The case led to reforms in the judicial and penal system, and the release of 40,000 prisoners across the country. |
Q84. Who among the following is considered as the father of PIL in India?
(A) Justice S.R. Das
(B) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(D) Justice H.R. Khanna
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: Justice P. N. Bhagwati is often referred to as the ‘father of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)’ in India. He introduced the concept of PIL in India during his tenure as the 17th Chief Justice of India from 1985 to 1986. |
Q85. Against which of the following a PIL cannot be filed?
(A) Against a State Government
(B) Against Central Government
(C) Against a private party
(D) Against Municipal Corporation
Ans. (C)
| Explanation: A PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION can be filed only against a State / Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, and not any private party. |
Q86. In the light of the guidelines issued by the Supreme Court of India on which of the following issue a PIL cannot be entertained by the Court?
(A) Bonded labour matters.
(B) Petition from jail for pre-mature release.
(C) Matters pertaining to neglected children.
(D) Petitions against police for refusing to register a case.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: To petition for premature release from jail, a prisoner can apply with the help of the District Legal Services Authority (DLSA). The DLSA can help eligible prisoners to apply for premature release. |
Q87. In which of the following landmark case it was held that Principles of Natural Justice were applicable not only to judicial and quasi-judicial functions, but also to administrative functions?
(A) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India
(B) Ram Jawaya Kapoor v. State of Punjab
(C) Sonik Industries Rajkot . Municipal Corporation, Rajkot
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India was a 1970 Supreme Court case that established that fair adjudication is not limited to judicial functions but also applies to administrative matters. The case is considered a landmark ruling on the issue of personal bias. |
Q88. In which of the following judgment the Supreme Court had comprehensively reconsidered S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India case?
(A) J.B. Chopra v. Union of India
(B) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(C) R.K. Jain v. Union of India
(D) S.K. Sarkar v. Vinay Chandra Mishra
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: The judgment of L Chandra Kumar’s case is as follows: The fundamental element of the judgement was that the High Courts’ legally mandated right to judicial review cannot and will not be replaced by the Tribunals. The Tribunals shall act as additional institutions to assist the High Court in its responsibilities. |
Q89. Who among the following defined administrative law as ‘the law relating to the control of governmental power’?
(A) Ivor Jennings
(B) Wade
(C) K.C. Davis
(D) Garner
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Wade defines administrative law as ‘the law relating to the control of governmental power’. Administrative law is a branch of public law that governs the relationship between the government and the people. |
Q90. What penalty is prescribed for persons illegally practising in courts under the Advocates Act, 1961?
(A) Imprisonment upto 3 months
(B) Imprisonment upto 6 months
(C) Imprisonment upto 9 months
(D) Imprisonment upto 12 months
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 45 of the Advocates Act, 1961 prescribes that any person who practises in any court or before any authority or person, in or before whom he is not entitled to practise under the provisions of this Act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months. |
Q91. Which provision of the Advocates Act, 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to prescribe the standard of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates?
(A) Section 42
(B) Section 42A
(C) Section 48A
(D) Section 49.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 49 of the Advocates Act, 1961 gives the Bar Council of India the power to make rules for discharging its functions under the Act. |
Q92. Which of the following is incorrect according to the Bar Council of India Rules?
(A) An Advocate can plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested.
(B) An advocate shall appear in court at all times only in the prescribed dress.
(C) An Advocate shall not stand as a surety for his client.
(D) An Advocate shall not influence the decision of a court by any improper means.
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: As per Rule 9 Chapter VI Part II of the Bar Council of India Rules, an advocate shall not act or plead in any matter in which he is himself pecuniarily interested. |
Q93. Which of the following authority acts as an appellate authority against the order made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India?
(A) Chairman of the Bar Council of India
(B) Vice-chairman of the Bar Council of India
(C) High Courts
(D) Supreme Court of India
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 38 of the Advocates Act of 1961 covers appeals to the Supreme Court in relation to orders made by the disciplinary committee of the Bar Council of India. |
Q94. In which of the following situations a one person company (OPC) will mandatorily get converted into either private or public company?
(A) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds twenty-five lakh rupees.
(B) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds fifty lakh rupees.
(C) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds seventy-five lakh rupees.
(D) In case the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds one crore rupees.
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 2(62) of Companies Act defines a one-person company as a company that has only one person as to its member. An OPC is effectively a company that has only one shareholder as its member. |
Q95. What is the minimum number of directors required for a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Ans. (B)
| Explanation: Section 149(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, deals with the minimum number of directors a company must have. A public company must have at least three directors, a private company must have at least two directors, and a One Person Company must have at least one director. |
Q96. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India had explained the Precautionary Principle in details?
(A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum o Union of India
(B) A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
Ans. (*** (Disputed))
| Explanation: The Supreme Court of India has explained the Precautionary Principle in detail in several cases, including AP Control Pollution Board v. Prof M V Nayadu and Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum Vs. Union of India. |
Q97. Which of the following is a landmark case on the public trust doctrine in the Environmental Law?
(A) Vellore Citizens’ Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(B) Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
(C) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action v. Union of India
(D) M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath and Others [(1997) 1 SCC 388]. In this case, there was massive encroachment of land and of the Beas River by Span Motel Pvt Ltd. This case is considered to be a landmark case in Indian Environmental Law due to the fact that Public Trust Doctrine and The Polluter Pays Principle were applied. |
Q98. In which of the following case Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 was struck down by the Supreme Court?
(A) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(B) Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) K.A. Abbas v. Union of India
(D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
Ans. (A)
| Explanation: The Court agreed that the prohibition against the dissemination of information by means of a computer resource or a communication device intended to cause annoyance, inconvenience or insult did not fall within any reasonable exceptions to the exercise of the right to freedom of expression. |
Q99. In which of the following case an electronic record shall not be attributed to the originator as per the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(A) Electronic record sent by the originator himself.
(B) Electronic record sent by an authorised person.
(C) Electronic record sent by an automated system programmed by him.
(D) Electronic record sent by an unauthorized person.
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 11 of the Information Technology Act of 2000 deals with the attribution of electronic records: An electronic record is attributed to the originator if the originator sent it themselves; an electronic record is attributed to the originator if a person with the authority to act on behalf of the originator sent it; an electronic record is attributed to the originator if an information system programmed by or on behalf of the originator automatically operated the record. |
Q100. What is the maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) 6 weeks
(B) 8 weeks
(C) 12 weeks
(D) 26 weeks
Ans. (D)
| Explanation: Section 5(3) of the Maternity Benefit Act of 1961 states that a woman is entitled to a maximum of 26 weeks of maternity benefits, but not more than eight weeks of that can be before the expected delivery date. |
