Q1. In which case a registered society was held to be an “authority” for the purpose of Article 12?
(A) Som Prakash vs. Union of India
✓ (B) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
(C) Sukhdev vs. Bhagatram
(D) R.D. Shetty vs. International Airport Authority
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In the case of Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi, a registered society managing a regional engineering college was held to be an “authority” under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court established that a registered society can be considered an instrumentality or agency of the Government and therefore falls under the definition of “State” in Article 12.
Q2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that fundamental rights cannot be waived?
(A) Gopala vs. State of Madras
(B) Kameshwar Singh vs. State of Bihar
(C) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
✓ (D) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived in the case of Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax, Delhi & Rajasthan. This landmark decision established that fundamental rights, particularly those under Article 14 (right to equality), cannot be waived by individuals. The court emphasized that the purpose of fundamental rights is to protect citizens from State overreach, and this protection cannot be relinquished.
Q3. By which Constitutional Amendment clause (4B) was inserted into Article 16?
✓ (A) 81
(B) 91
(C) 77
(D) 85
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Clause (4B) was inserted into Article 16 of the Indian Constitution by the 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000. This amendment allows the State to treat unfilled reserved vacancies from previous years as a separate category of vacancies to be filled in subsequent years, and these should not be combined with the current year’s vacancies when determining the 50% ceiling on reservations.
Q4. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act? (i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi. (ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the House of People. (iii) It also adds Article 334A in which it is stated that the said amendment will commence after the first census have been taken after the commencement of the said Act. (iv) The above stated provisions shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from search commencement.
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) All of these
Answer: No Official Answer (NA)
Explanation: The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, also known as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Delhi Legislative Assembly. This includes seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The reservation will be implemented after the next census and delimitation exercise, and will be in effect for 15 years, with the possibility of extension by Parliament.
Q5. The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024”, which includes the following provisions: (1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender. (2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of Rs. 10,000 for discrimination. (3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years. A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the rights to privacy under Article 21. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law. What principle did the Court apply in this decision?
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
✓ (B) Doctrine of Severability
(C) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Doctrine of Severability, also known as the separability doctrine, is a legal principle stating that if a part of a law or contract is deemed invalid or unconstitutional, the rest of the law or contract can still be enforced, provided the invalid part can be separated without undermining the original intent. This allows courts to preserve the valid portions of a document while striking down only the offending provisions.
Q6. The report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the ________.
✓ (A) Governor
(B) Committee on Public Undertaking
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State. The Governor is then required to cause the report to be laid before the State Legislature.
Q7. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?
(A) Article 19
(B) Article 111
✓ (C) Article 129
(D) Article 135
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 129 of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record, according to the Constitution of India. This means the Supreme Court’s decisions and proceedings are officially recorded and are of evidentiary value. These records are accepted as authentic and cannot be questioned when presented before any court.
Q8. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?
(A) 107
✓ (B) 105
(C) 108
(D) 102
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Article 105 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members. It outlines the freedom of speech within Parliament, immunity from court proceedings for actions taken in Parliament, and the right to define these powers, privileges and immunities by law.
Q9. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?
(A) 99
(B) 100
✓ (C) 101
(D) 102
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Constitution (101st) Amendment Act, 2016 allows both the Centre and States to levy the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Q10. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
✓ (A) Either House of Parliament
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Only Lok Sabha
(D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The President of India is removed by the process of impeachment. The President can be removed for the violation of the Constitution of India through this process of impeachment. The motion of impeachment can be initiated by any House of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
Section 2: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 (Q11–18)
Q11. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force”:
(A) When it is used unintentionally.
(B) When intentionally uses force only.
✓ (C) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.
(D) When it is used in self-defence.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, defines “criminal force” as the intentional application of force to another person without their consent, with the purpose of committing an offense, or with the knowledge that such force is likely to cause injury, fear, or annoyance. This definition is found in Section 129 of the BNS.
Q12. According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?
(A) One hundred rupees
(B) Five hundred rupees
✓ (C) Three hundred rupees
(D) One thousand rupees
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Section 182(1) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the maximum fine for making or using a document resembling a currency or bank note is three hundred rupees.
Q13. According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed? (1) Robbery (2) House-breaking after subset (3) Theft, mischief or house trespass
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (3) both
(C) (1) and (2) both
✓ (D) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to Section 41 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the right of private defense of property extends to causing death or other harm to the wrong-doer in cases of robbery, house-breaking after sunset and before sunrise, and mischief by fire or explosive substances on a dwelling or property storage building, or if theft, mischief, or house-trespass are likely to cause death or grievous hurt if the right of private defense is not exercised.
Q14. Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil’s arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Principle: Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?
(A) Simple hurt under Section 323 of IPC
✓ (B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
(C) Voluntarily causing hurt under Section 324 of IPC
(D) Attempt to commit culpable homicide under Section 308 of IPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Rajesh has committed the offense of voluntarily causing grievous hurt, as defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), specifically Section 325. The act of striking Sunil with a heavy iron rod, resulting in a fractured arm (grievous hurt), falls under this category.
Q15. Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Principle: Which of the following offences has Amit committed?
(A) Murder under Section 302 of IPC
✓ (B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC
(C) Causing death by negligence under Section 304A of IPC
(D) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Amit can be held liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 Part II of the Indian Penal Code. While he intended to cause death and his actions resulted in Vijay’s death, the absence of premeditation and intent to cause death, coupled with the fact that he acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death, places his offense under this specific section.
Q16. Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrested them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikaram. Principle: Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?
(A) Attempt to commit theft
✓ (B) House trespass with intent to commit theft
(C) Attempt to commit robbery
(D) Burglary
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Amit and Rani’s actions of breaking into a house with the intent to steal constitute the offense of “house trespass with intent to commit theft” under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS).
Q17. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?
(A) 64
✓ (B) 65
(C) 63
(D) 72
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, Chapter V S. 65. Punishment for rape in certain cases — whoever commits rape on a woman under sixteen years of age shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years, but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and whoever commits rape on a woman under twelve years of age shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than twenty years, and with fine or with death.
Q18. A new offense of ‘Snatching’ has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines ‘Snatching’ as an offense?
(A) 308
(B) 303
(C) 305
✓ (D) 304
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The new offense of “Snatching” is defined in Section 304 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). Specifically, it outlines that snatching occurs when an offender, with the intent to commit theft, suddenly, quickly, or forcibly seizes or takes away movable property from a person or their possession, according to the BPR&D. This section effectively distinguishes snatching as a specific type of theft under the BNS.
Section 3: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) (Q19–28)
Q19. Consider the following statements and answer the question given below: Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. Principle: The Police Officer, Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when — (1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel. (2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested. (3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away. (4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat, or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances. Which of the above is/are the correct statement?
✓ (A) (1) and (3)
(B) (2) and (4)
(C) Only (4)
(D) Only (2)
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Given the information that two villagers have implicated Raju in a bank robbery and concealing stolen property at his farm, and considering the role of Police Officer Mr. Patel: (1) Arrest without warrant is justified since the villagers’ statements suggest a cognizable offence (robbery) is involved, and there is reasonable suspicion. (2) Reasonable Suspicion: The statements from two villagers provide a reasonable suspicion of Raju’s involvement in the robbery and hiding the stolen goods. (3) Investigation: Mr. Patel should immediately initiate an investigation based on the complaint and information received.
Q20. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as ________.
(A) NCR
✓ (B) Zero FIR
(C) False FIR
(D) Counter FIR
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The FIR registered under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) irrespective of the jurisdiction where the offense is committed is known as a Zero FIR.
Q21. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least _______ years.
(A) 2
(B) 4
✓ (C) 7
(D) 5
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 176 of BNSS, which has replaced CrPC, mandates forensic testing for offences that carry sentences of more than 7 years.
Q22. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?
(A) 251
(B) 349
✓ (C) 356
(D) 366
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 356 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders who have absconded to evade trial. This section is applicable when there is no immediate prospect of arresting the proclaimed offender. The court can proceed with the trial as if the offender were present, after recording reasons in writing and ensuring certain procedures are followed.
Q23. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode?
(A) 532
(B) 330
(C) 430
✓ (D) 530
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 530 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode. This section outlines provisions for conducting various court proceedings, including issuing summons, examining individuals, recording evidence, and conducting appeal proceedings, through electronic means.
Q24. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
✓ (A) 531
(B) 101
(C) 2
(D) 1
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 531 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC). Specifically, sub-section (1) of Section 531 states: “The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is hereby repealed.”
Q25. Which section mandates State Government to prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the State with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses?
(A) 98
(B) 198
(C) 298
✓ (D) 398
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 398 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 mandates that each State Government must prepare and notify a Witness Protection Scheme to ensure the protection of witnesses. This section is a new addition to the criminal procedure framework and requires State Governments to establish these schemes.
Q26. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public?
(A) 25
(B) 35
✓ (C) 37
(D) 45
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 37(b) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station. This officer, not below the rank of Assistant Sub-Inspector, is responsible for maintaining and displaying information about arrested individuals to the public.
Q27. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?
(A) 74
(B) 76
(C) 84
✓ (D) 86
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Section 86 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India. Specifically, it allows a court to request assistance from a foreign court in a contracting country to help with these actions regarding the property of a proclaimed person.
Q28. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?
(A) 146
(B) 246
✓ (C) 346
(D) 356
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 346 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) places restrictions on the adjournment of trials to ensure the expeditious resolution of cases. This section specifically addresses the power to postpone or adjourn proceedings.
Section 4: Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) (Q29–38)
Q29. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party Ravi objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?
(A) The District Court A where the suit is currently pending.
✓ (B) The High Court or the Supreme Court
(C) The Civil Judge in District Court B
(D) A committee to local advocates
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Transfer of a case is a legal process through which the Indian judiciary can move a case from one court to another to ensure justice. A party seeking transfer must file an application with the High Court or Sessions Judge, stating the case details, legal grounds, and reasons.
Q30. Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbour, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. Principle: Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?
✓ (A) Order 1, Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties
(B) Order 7, Rule 11 – Rejection of Plaint
(C) Order 5 – Service of Summons
(D) Order 6, Rule 17 – Amendment of Pleadings
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Order 1, Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) deals with the addition, removal, and substitution of parties in a civil suit. It allows courts to ensure that all necessary and proper parties are included in a case to effectively and completely adjudicate the matter. This rule is crucial for preventing multiplicity of suits and ensuring that a single judgment resolves all related disputes.
Q31. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?
✓ (A) Section 96
(B) Section 100
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 104
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) governs appeals from original decrees. Specifically, it states that an appeal shall lie from every decree passed by any court exercising original jurisdiction to the court authorized to hear appeals from the decisions of such court, unless otherwise provided in the Code or any other law.
Q32. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?
(A) 30 Days
(B) 60 Days
(C) 120 Days
✓ (D) 90 Days
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), the maximum time limit for filing a written statement is 120 days from the date of service of summons. Initially, the defendant has 30 days to file the written statement. If the court deems it necessary, it can grant an extension of up to 90 days, provided sufficient reasons are recorded and costs are paid. After 120 days, the right to file the written statement is forfeited, and the court cannot accept it.
Q33. Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of States from personal appearance in court?
(A) Section 132
✓ (B) Section 133
(C) Section 128
(D) Section 130
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 133 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, provides exemption to the President of India and Governors of States from personal appearance in court. This exemption is based on the high constitutional positions they hold and the demands of their duties, according to legal resources.
Q34. What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Res Judicata
(B) Reference
(C) Review
✓ (D) Transfer of suits
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under the Code of Civil Procedure, a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another is referred to as transfer of suits or transfer of cases. This power is outlined in Sections 22, 23 and 24 of the Code.
Q35. Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?
(A) Order XXXV
✓ (B) Order XXXVII
(C) Order XXXIV
(D) Order XXXVI
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Order XXXVII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, outlines a summary procedure for specific types of suits, primarily those based on negotiable instruments or where the plaintiff seeks to recover a debt or liquidated demand. This order allows for a quicker resolution by limiting the defendant’s ability to defend the suit.
Q36. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of “res judicata”?
✓ (A) Section 11
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 9
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The principle of “res judicata” is dealt with under Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC). This section codifies the doctrine that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, it cannot be re-litigated by the same parties in a subsequent suit.
Q37. _______ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.
✓ (A) Section 88
(B) Section 89
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 86
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 88 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) provides for an interpleader suit. This section, along with Order XXXV, outlines the conditions and procedures for such suits, where a person holding property or money, but with no personal interest in it, seeks a court’s decision on who is the rightful claimant.
Q38. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?
(A) Section 35
✓ (B) Section 35A
(C) Section 35B
(D) Section 36
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 35A of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908, provides for the payment of compensatory costs in cases of false or vexatious claims or defenses. This section empowers a court to award such costs to the aggrieved party to compensate them for expenses incurred due to frivolous litigation.
Section 5: Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) & Evidence (Q39–46)
Q39. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act?
(A) Inducement
✓ (B) Coercion
(C) Threat
(D) Promise
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The word “coercion” is inserted in Section 22 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) (2023) that was not present in Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act (1872). Section 22 of the BSA consolidates and refines the provisions related to confessions from Sections 24, 28 and 29 of the Evidence Act.
Q40. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in ________.
(A) Section 12 of the BSA, 2023
(B) Section 13 of the BSA, 2023
✓ (C) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023
(D) Section 15 of the BSA, 2023
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Section 14 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, specifically addresses the relevance of a “course of business” when determining the occurrence of a particular act. It essentially states that if there is a question about whether something happened, the existence of a regular business practice that would naturally lead to that event makes that practice a relevant fact.
Q41. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recovered a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?
✓ (A) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are automatically considered conclusive proof of Rajesh’s guilt.
(B) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
(C) The evidence is inadmissible because the police did not obtain a search warrant before recovering doubt.
(D) The fingerprints must be verified by at least two independent forensic experts before being presented in court.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, mandates that courts interpret evidence based on its relevance to the facts in issue, considering whether it proves, disproves, or neither proves nor disproves a fact. The court will assess the evidence, potentially regarding it as proven if it believes the fact exists or if a prudent person would act as if it exists.
Q42. Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resources as an electronic or digital records, the BSA, 2023 classifies each part as a:
✓ (A) Primary evidence
(B) Secondary evidence
(C) Circumstantial evidence
(D) Scientific evidence
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, where a document is executed in several parts, each part is classified as primary evidence. This includes instances where a document is printed in multiple copies, produced through lithography or photography, captured via video recording, or stored as electronic or digital records across multiple files. According to the BSA, each of these parts is considered a primary source of evidence.
Q43. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?
(A) 65
✓ (B) 165
(C) 268
(D) 168
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 165(3) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, specifically states that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it.
Q44. According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?
(A) Always relevant to prove conduct
✓ (B) Only when related to other relevant fact
(C) Never relevant
(D) Only in criminal cases
Answer: (B)
Explanation: According to Section 46 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, character evidence is generally not relevant in civil cases to prove conduct imputed to a person. However, character evidence can be relevant if it is connected to facts that are otherwise relevant.
Q45. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA, 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:
(A) The officer’s signature is assumed to be forgery
(B) The officer did not hold the claimed officer character at the time of signing
✓ (C) The officer held the official character claimed when signing or certifying the document
(D) The document’s authenticity is independent of the official’s official character
Answer: (C)
Explanation: According to Section 78(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, when an officer signs or certifies a document, there is a presumption that the officer held the official character they claimed at the time of signing or certifying. This means the court will assume the officer was acting in their official capacity unless there is evidence to the contrary.
Q46. Under Section 146 of the BSA, 2023, when the leading questions are permissible in the court proceedings?
(A) Leading questions are always allowed during examination-in chief without restriction.
(B) Leading questions are not allowed during cross-examination.
(C) Leading questions can be asked in an examination-in chief, re-examination, cross-examination without any objection.
✓ (D) Leading questions are permitted during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Under Section 146 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, leading questions are generally not allowed during examination-in-chief or re-examination unless the court permits them. However, they are permissible during cross-examination. The court may also allow leading questions for introductory, undisputed matters, or when the facts have already been sufficiently proven.
Section 6: ADR, Arbitration & Conciliation (Q47–50)
Q47. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?
(A) The mediator imposes a binding decision.
✓ (B) It involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.
(C) The mediator acts as a judge and renders a verdict.
(D) It is always court-ordered.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mediation is characterized by its voluntary, confidential, and interest-based nature, facilitated by a neutral third party. It is a collaborative process where parties retain control over the outcome and decision-making, aiming for a mutually acceptable resolution. Mediation is also generally informal, flexible, and often more efficient and cost-effective than traditional litigation.
Q48. A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?
✓ (A) The court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.
(B) The parties must mutually select an arbitrator, and if they fail, the arbitration will not take place.
(C) The arbitrator must be appointed by the Indian Council of Arbitration (ICA) in all cases.
(D) The parties can resolve the appointment issue by opting for conciliation instead of arbitration.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 11 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, deals with the appointment of arbitrators. It outlines the procedures for how arbitrators are chosen, whether by the parties themselves or by the courts if the parties fail to agree.
Q49. Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR?
(A) It is generally faster than litigation.
(B) It offers more confidentiality than traditional court cases.
✓ (C) It always results in a binding decision.
(D) It is often less expensive than court proceedings.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Disadvantages of ADR include: Lack of enforceability (in some cases) — while some ADR methods, like arbitration, can result in binding decisions, others, such as mediation, are non-binding. Inconsistency — due to the less formal nature of ADR, different mediators or arbitrators may handle similar cases differently, leading to inconsistent outcomes. Publicity — unlike court proceedings, which are generally open to the public, ADR is typically confidential.
Q50. Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Principle: Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?
(A) Section 34 of the Act deals with the enforcement of an arbitral award.
✓ (B) Section 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set-aside by the court.
(C) Section 9 of the Act governs the enforcement of arbitral awards.
(D) Section 11 of the Act deals with the enforcement of arbitral awards, not the appeal.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, deals with the enforcement of arbitral awards. It essentially states that once the time for challenging an award under Section 34 has passed, or if a challenge is made and rejected, the award can be enforced as if it were a court decree. The section also clarifies that filing a challenge under Section 34 doesn’t automatically make the award unenforceable; a separate application for a stay is required, and the court can grant a stay under specific conditions.
Section 7: Personal & Family Law (Q51–58)
Q51. Which sections discuss with regard to “sapinda relationships” under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955?
✓ (A) Sections 3(f)(i), 5 (v)
(B) Sections 3(f)(i), 5 (iv)
(C) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to section 3(g), 5(iv)
(D) Sections 3(f)(i) & (ii), Explanation to section 3(g), 5(v)
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, defines and discusses the concept of sapinda relationship. Specifically, it outlines that a sapinda relationship exists between two people if one is a lineal ascendant of the other, or if they have a common lineal ascendant within the specified degrees of relationship.
Q52. Under Section 15 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the divorced person, to marry again _____
(A) have to wait for a period of one year from the date of the decree.
(B) have to wait for a period of six months from the date of decree.
✓ (C) may marry immediately thereafter without the leave of the court as a matter of right.
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Under Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a divorced person can remarry after the divorce decree becomes final. This means either there is no right of appeal against the decree, or if there is, the appeal period has expired without an appeal being filed, or the appeal has been filed but dismissed.
Q53. Aarti and Rajesh have been married for five years. Over time, Aarti has been subjected to continuous cruelty by Rajesh, which has led to emotional and mental distress. Aarti decided to file for divorce on the grounds of cruelty under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Principle: Select the correct option.
(A) Aarti can only seek divorce on the ground of adultery.
(B) Aarti can seek divorce on the ground of cruelty, as long as she proves mental or physical cruelty.
(C) Aarti cannot seek divorce on the grounds of cruelty as it is not recognized under the Hindu Marriage Act
✓ (D) Aarti must prove Rajesh’s cruelty was intentional to succeed in the divorce petition.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Yes, Aarti has valid grounds for divorce under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. This section allows for divorce on the grounds of cruelty, which can be either physical or mental, and does not necessarily require proof of intentional harm. If Aarti can demonstrate to the court that she has endured continuous cruelty from Rajesh, causing her emotional and mental distress, she can be granted a divorce.
Q54. On matters where Dayabhaga is silent, what prevails?
✓ (A) The local customs
(B) The Smritis
(C) The Shrutis
(D) Mitakshara
Answer: (A)
Explanation: When the Dayabhaga school of Hindu law is silent on a specific matter, the principles of Mitakshara law or local customs generally prevail. The Dayabhaga, primarily concerned with inheritance and property rights, is considered less comprehensive than the Mitakshara, which has a wider scope and is followed in most of India.
Q55. Nisha and Aakash are separated, and they both seek custody of their minor child, Aarav. Nisha has been the primary caregiver, while Aakash claims that he can provide better financial stability for Aarav. They both approach the court under the Guardian and Wards Act, 1890. Principle: Which of the following factors will be court primarily consider in determining the custody of Aarav?
(A) The financial stability of both parents.
(B) The gender for the child.
✓ (C) The welfare and best interest of the child.
(D) The parent who is financially more stable is granted custody automatically.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The principle of “the welfare and best interest of the child” is a fundamental concept in child protection laws. It prioritizes a child’s well-being and development in all decisions affecting them, ensuring their rights, needs, and aspirations are considered paramount. This principle is enshrined in international conventions like the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) and is reflected in national laws and judicial decisions.
Q56. Match the following: a. Spoken words — i. Sunnat-ul-Qaul; b. Deepika vs. CAT — ii. Customary Law; c. Silence — iii. Sunnat-ul-Taqrir; d. Ass Kaur vs. Kartar Singh — iv. Atypical Relationships; e. Shayara Bano vs. UOI — v. Triple Talaq; [vi. Maintenance]
(A) a-iii, b-ii, d-v, e-vi
(B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
✓ (C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-vi
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv,, e-vi
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Ass Kaur (Deceased) By L.Rs v. Kartar Singh (Dead) By L.Rs. & Ors was adjudicated by the Supreme Court of India on May 18, 2007. This landmark judgment addressed the critical issue of the applicability of customary law in matters of inheritance and succession under the Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act, 1937.
Q57. Fatima, a Muslim woman, has been divorced by her husband, Imran, through Talaq, Fatima is now seeking maintenance from Imran for herself and her two minor children. Imran argues that Fatima has remarried and, therefore, is not entitled to any maintenance. Principle: Under Muslim law, which of the following statements is true regarding Fatima’s claim for maintenance?
✓ (A) Fatima is not entitled to maintenance because she has remarried.
(B) Fatima is entitled to maintenance only for a period of three months after the divorce.
(C) Fatima entitled to maintenance for herself during her iddat period and for her children until they are self-supporting.
(D) Fatima can claim maintenance for herself and her children indefinitely, irrespective of her remarriage or the children’s age.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: While a divorced Muslim woman’s remarriage terminates her right to maintenance from her former husband, it does not affect her right to claim maintenance for her minor children. Under Muslim law, a divorced woman is entitled to maintenance during the iddat period, and for her minor children until they become self-supporting. Remarriage does not nullify the obligation to provide for the children’s well-being.
Q58. The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is given in Section _____ of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
(A) 13
(B) 11
(C) 6
✓ (D) 9
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is provided under Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Section 8: Public Interest Litigation & Administrative Law (Q59–65)
Q59. In which case a prison inmate sent a letter to the Supreme Court, describing physical torture, which became a pioneer in public interest litigation, though the court later abandoned the practice of considering letters?
✓ (A) Hussainara Khatoon vs. Bihar case
(B) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration
(C) Mukti Morcha vs. Union of India
(D) The Narasimha Rao case
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar case, decided in 1979, is a landmark judgment in Indian legal history, particularly for its impact on fundamental rights and public interest litigation (PIL). The Supreme Court, in this case, recognized the right to a speedy trial as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, emphasizing that justice delayed is justice denied.
Q60. In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights. The Supreme Court was approached to look into the dire circumstances of the working persons there and one of the following views of the Court was sustained in the said case, identify from the following:
(A) The Court established that the right to free legal aid is a mere directive principle and cannot enforced as a fundamental right.
(B) The judgment primarily focused on providing monetary compensation to the affected labourers without addressing systematic issues of bounded labour.
✓ (C) The Supreme Court recognized the right against forced labour as a fundamental right derived from the rights to life and human dignity under Article 21.
(D) The Court ruled that only government agencies, and not social activists, could file petitions concerning labour rights.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In the early 1980s, a social activist group discovered severe exploitation of labourers working in stone quarries near Delhi. The workers, including many children, were working in extremely hazardous conditions, living in makeshift shelters, and were effectively trapped in a cycle of debt and forced labour. The conditions revealed systematic violations of fundamental human rights.
Q61. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: In PIL cases, the Court plays a passive role similar to traditional cases. Statement 2: PIL is primarily focused on individual disputes.
(A) Both statements are true.
(B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
✓ (D) Both statements are false.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: No, in Public Interest Litigation (PIL) cases, the Court does not play a passive role. It takes a more active and proactive role compared to traditional cases. PIL is designed to address broader societal issues and enforce the rights of the public, particularly those who are disadvantaged. The court actively engages in finding solutions and ensuring justice in these cases, often taking a creative and assertive approach.
Q62. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of “locus standi” is relaxed in PIL cases. Reason (R): PIL allows any public-spirited person to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot represent themselves. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
✓ (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, and (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Yes, the concept of “locus standi” is relaxed in Public Interest Litigation (PIL) cases. Traditionally, a person needed to demonstrate a direct and substantial interest in a case to have the legal standing (“locus standi”) to sue. In PILs, this requirement is relaxed, allowing public-spirited individuals or organizations to bring cases on behalf of those who may be unable to seek legal recourse themselves.
Q63. Which of the following best defines delegated legislation?
(A) Legislation passed by local governments.
(B) Laws enacted by Parliament or the Legislature.
✓ (C) Laws made by an administrative authority under powers given to them by Parliament
(D) A judicial decision made by an administrative tribunal.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Delegated legislation, also known as subordinate legislation or secondary legislation, refers to laws created by bodies other than the primary legislature (like a Parliament), but under the authority granted to them by that legislature. Essentially, the legislature delegates its law-making power to another body, often an executive branch or an administrative agency.
Q64. In 2020 at Dhorodo village the Panchayat election could not happen due to Covid pandemic while the tenure of the Panchayat was getting over that year itself. Mr. Haribansh, represented the people that year at the Panchayat post dissolution of the Panchayat tenure and made a law exercising the delegated power vide the Panchayatiraj Act of the State to restrict their economic activities per day to Rs. 100 only. In which of the following case this is allowed or restricted?
(A) MCD vs. Birla Cotton Mills
(B) Patna University vs. Amita Tiwari
(C) Jalan Trading vs. Union of India
✓ (D) None of these
Answer: (D)
Explanation: No option is marked. The specific case law applicable to this scenario is not definitively established from the options.
Q65. Which of the following is/are not grounds/for judicial review of administrative action? (1) Illegality (2) Irrationality (3) Proportionality (4) Public opinion
(A) Only (2)
(B) (2) and (4)
✓ (C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (4)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Public opinion is not a legal basis for judicial review. Decisions must be based on law and evidence, not simply popular sentiment. Political considerations — administrative decisions should be made based on the merits of the case, not on political pressure or expediency. Discretionary decisions — courts are generally reluctant to review decisions that are purely discretionary, meaning they involve choices made by the administrative body within the scope of its authority.
Section 9: Professional Ethics & Company Law (Q66–71)
Q66. What does “conflict of interests” refer to in professional ethics?
(A) A situation involving legal disputes
(B) A situation where two professionals disagree
(C) A conflict between ethics and laws
✓ (D) A situation where personal interests conflict with professional duties
Answer: (D)
Explanation: In professional ethics, a conflict of interest (COI) arises when a person’s private interests, or those of their close relationships, have the potential to influence or bias their professional decisions or actions, potentially to the detriment of their primary duty or obligation. This conflict can compromise objectivity and impartiality in the workplace.
Q67. Advocate Mr. X was representing a client, Mr. Y, in a property dispute case. During the proceedings, Advocate Mr. X accepted a bribe from the opposing party to delay the case, causing significant harm to Mr. Y’s interests. Moreover, Mr. X failed to inform his client about critical hearing dates, leading to adverse judgments. Principle: On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) It is a violation of Rules made by the Bar Council of India for the professional ethics
(B) It is only an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 2018
✓ (C) It amounts to criminal conspiracy under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
(D) It amounts to the Contempt of Court under the Contempt of Court Act, 1971.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Advocate Mr. X’s actions constitute a serious breach of professional ethics and misconduct. Accepting a bribe to delay the case and failing to inform the client about critical hearing dates are severe violations of an advocate’s duty to their client and the legal profession. These actions can lead to disciplinary actions against the advocate, including suspension or disbarment. Additionally, Mr. Y has grounds to seek legal recourse against Mr. X for the damages incurred due to his negligence and unethical behaviour.
Q68. The nature of proceedings in the cases of professional misconduct: (1) Criminal in nature (2) Neither civil nor criminal (3) Quasi-criminal in nature (4) Civil in nature
(A) Both (1) and (4)
✓ (B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) (1), (3) and (4)
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Proceedings in cases of professional misconduct are quasi-criminal in nature, meaning they share characteristics with criminal proceedings but are not strictly criminal. These proceedings can result in serious consequences for the professional, such as suspension or disbarment.
Q69. Appropriate procedural safeguards help reduce threats to objectively and counter any perception of possible bias, which of the following is/are not procedural safeguard/s? (1) Act in a fraudulent manner (2) Providing peer-review of valuation, if necessary (3) Non-Disclosure of any prior association with the client (4) Non-Disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest
(A) (3) and (4)
✓ (B) Only (2)
(C) Only (4)
(D) (2) and (4)
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Disclosure of prior association with the client and disclosure of any possible source of conflict of interest are crucial procedural safeguards to maintain objectivity and transparency. Acting in a fraudulent manner is clearly not a safeguard; it is the opposite.
Q70. As per Section 2(84), “Share” means share in the share capital of a Company and includes _____. (1) Debentures (2) Preference Shares (3) Stocks (4) Bonds
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (1), (2) and (3)
✓ (C) Only (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: According to Section 2(84) of the Companies Act, 2013, a “share” means a share in the share capital of a company and includes stock.
Q71. Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for _________.
✓ (A) Issue of Shares at Premium
(B) Kinds of Shares Capital
(C) Buy Back of Shares
(D) Reduction in Share Capital
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the kinds of share capital a company can have. It specifies that a company limited by shares can have two types of share capital: equity share capital and preference share capital.
Section 10: Environmental, Cyber & Labour Law (Q72–79)
Q72. A manufacturing company in the city of Surat named as “X” has been discharging untreated industrial waste into a nearby river, violating the provisions of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. This has resulted in severe pollution, making the river water unsafe for drinking and harming aquatic life. Principle: Local farmers and residents, who rely on the river for irrigation and daily needs, have started facing health issues and crop failures due to the contaminated water. Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) It is the violation of Section 24 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
(B) It is the violation of Section 40 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
✓ (C) It is not the violation of the provisions of the laws stated in the problem.
(D) It is the violation of Section 23 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: NA
Q73. Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
(A) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(B) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(C) The Factories Act, 1948
✓ (D) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Answer: (D)
Explanation: “Umbrella legislation” refers to a law that provides a broad framework for addressing a wide range of issues within a specific area, often filling gaps in existing laws and coordinating the actions of different authorities. The Indian Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is a prime example, acting as an umbrella law for environmental protection by coordinating Central and State authorities established under other Acts like the Water and Air Acts.
Q74. Which of the following is/are included under Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 describing the Intermediary? (1) Cyber Cafes (2) Telecom Regulators (3) Social Media Platforms (4) Internet Service Providers
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1), (3) and (4)
✓ (C) (1), (2) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (C)
Explanation: According to Section 2(1)(w) of the Information Technology Act, 2000, an “intermediary” is defined as any person who receives, stores, or transmits electronic records on behalf of another person, and provides services related to such records; this includes a wide range of entities like telecom service providers, internet service providers, search engines, online marketplaces, and more.
Q75. Malti, a small business owner, run an online clothing store. Recently, she noticed that her website had been hacked, and her customers’ personal information, including names, addresses, and payment details, was stolen. Shortly after, some of her customers reported unauthorized transactions on their accounts. Malti wishes to file a complaint against the incident. Principle: On the basis of the above problem select the correct option.
✓ (A) It is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
(B) It is punishable only under the criminal laws.
(C) It is punishable under Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and the customers can also claim the compensation under certain circumstances.
(D) The customers do not have any legal remedy under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 66 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with computer-related offenses. It essentially states that if someone dishonestly or fraudulently performs any act mentioned in Section 43, they can be punished with imprisonment up to three years, a fine of up to five lakh rupees, or both. “Dishonestly” and “fraudulently” are defined with reference to the Indian Penal Code, specifically sections 24 and 25 respectively.
Q76. Which of the following is/are included under the definition of “employer” given under The Industrial Relations Code, 2020? (1) Occupier of the factory (2) Contractor (3) Manager of the factory (4) Managing director of the factory
(A) (4) Only
(B) (1), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
✓ (D) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, several entities can be considered “employers”: The occupier of a factory (entity with ultimate control over the factory premises), Managers/Authorities with Control (individuals or authorities responsible for managing the establishment), Contractors (if a contractor hires and manages workers, they are considered employers), and The head of a department (for government establishments).
Q77. Which of the following legislations has been included under the Social Security Code, 2020? (1) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (2) The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 (3) The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 (4) The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959
(A) Only (3)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (4)
✓ (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Social Security Code, 2020, consolidates several existing labour laws, including The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961; The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972; The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965; and The Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of Vacancies) Act, 1959.
Q78. __________ have not been set up under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for adjudication of industrial disputes in an organization.
(A) Industrial Tribunals
✓ (B) Environment Tribunals
(C) Labour Courts
(D) National Tribunal
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Environmental Tribunals are not established under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for the adjudication of industrial disputes. The Act primarily focuses on establishing mechanisms for resolving disputes between employers and employees, including Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals, and National Tribunals. Environmental Tribunals, on the other hand, are established to handle disputes related to environmental issues.
Q79. XYZ Textiles Ltd., a manufacturing company, recently terminated 04 workers without providing any compensation. The termination was because of misconduct on the part of the workers. The company issued a show cause notice and the disciplinary enquiry was also conducted against them. On the basis of the recommendations of the committee the services of these employees were terminated. The workers claimed the retrenchment compensation which was rejected by the management. Aggrieved by the rejection of workers have filed a complaint in the Labour Court under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. Principle: Based on the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) The termination does not amount to retrenchment, hence the compensation.
(B) The termination amounts to lay-off, hence compensation will be awarded.
(C) The termination does not amounts to retrenchment, hence compensation will be awarded.
✓ (D) The termination violated the provisions under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, hence the compensation will be awarded.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Yes, if a termination violates the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, the worker is entitled to compensation. Specifically, Section 25F of the Act mandates that retrenchment compensation, calculated as 15 days’ average pay for each completed year of service, must be paid to a worker upon termination. Failure to comply with this provision, among others, can lead to the termination being deemed illegal, and the worker can be awarded compensation.
Section 11: Law of Torts & Taxation (Q80–88)
Q80. Ms. J, a banker refuses to honour cheque of Ms. F. Though she was having sufficient balance yet it doesn’t suffer any loss to Ms F. Ms F can file the case under which scenario?
(A) Volenti-non-fit-injuria
(B) Injuria-sine-damnum
(C) Damnum-sine-injuria
(D) Res-ipsa-loquitur
Answer: No Official Answer (NA)
Explanation: Even though Ms. F didn’t suffer any financial loss, she can still file a case against Ms. J, the banker, for refusing to honour her cheque with sufficient funds under the scenario of “breach of contract”; as the bank had a legal obligation to pay the cheque if the funds were available, regardless of Ms. F’s financial situation.
Q81. Mr. B told Mr A to leave the premises in occupation of Mr. A. When Mr A refused then Mr. B collected some of his workmen who mustered round Mr. A. They tucking up their sleeves and aprons and threatened to break the plaintiff’s neck, he did not leave. Under which tortious act, Mr A can file the case?
(A) False Imprisonment
✓ (B) Assault
(C) Battery
(D) Hurt
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mr. A can file a case under the tort of assault. The threat of violence, even without physical contact, constitutes assault. Specifically, the actions of Mr. B and his workmen, by tucking up their sleeves and aprons and threatening to break Mr. A’s neck, created a reasonable apprehension of immediate harm, which is the core of assault.
Q82. Ms J knowing while taking the lift that driver Mr T was under the influence of alcohol. Consequently, car met with an accident and Ms J got injuries and she has filed the case for compensation. Which defence could be claimed by Mr T?
✓ (A) Volenti-non-fit-injuria
(B) Act of God
(C) Inevitable Accident
(D) Act of Necessity
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mr. T could potentially claim the defense of “Volenti-non-fit-injuria”, which translates to “to a willing person, no injury is done”. This defense suggests that Ms. J, knowing Mr. T was under the influence of alcohol, willingly accepted the risk of injury by choosing to ride with him.
Q83. Mr. K is owner of a building containing a large number of rooms and had derived a considerable income by letting them. Mr. Y is owner of an adjacent cotton mill which erected after the occupation by Mr. K. Owing to noise and smote of the mill several rooms remain vacated that results into loss for Mr K. Examine relevant tort for the case.
(A) Damnum-sine-injuria
(B) Trespass to land
✓ (C) Nuisance
(D) Negligence
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The relevant tort in this case is nuisance. Mr. Y’s cotton mill, by creating excessive noise and smoke that renders rooms unusable, has unreasonably interfered with Mr. K’s use and enjoyment of his property, thus constituting a private nuisance.
Q84. There was a collision between two buses, one owned by the Government and another was a private bus. Wherein private bus was coming from wrong side and Government bus was coming rashly, neither slowing down his bus after seeing the other bus. Determine the tortious act.
(A) Private bus owner is negligent
(B) Government bus owner it negligent
(C) Inevitable accident
✓ (D) Contributory negligence
Answer: (D)
Explanation: In this scenario, both the private bus driver and the Government bus driver are potentially liable for tortious acts. The private bus driver is at fault for driving on the wrong side of the road, violating traffic rules and endangering other road users. The Government bus driver is also at fault for driving rashly and failing to slow down when encountering the other bus, indicating negligence and a disregard for safety. Both drivers failed to exercise reasonable care, which is a key element in determining negligence in tort law.
Q85. The term “Income” is described in the Income Tax Act, 1961, under _______.
✓ (A) Section 2 (24)
(B) Section 2 (40)
(C) Section 3
(D) Section 10E
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 2(24) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 defines income as including: Salary, Profits and gains from business or profession, Dividends, Voluntary contributions to trusts or charitable institutions (whether wholly or partly for charitable or religious purposes).
Q86. Mr. X deposits Rs. 65,000 in the term deposit of 5 years with the Post Office to avail tax deduction under section 80C. Assuming Mr. X does not opt for concessional tax regime u/s 115BAC of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Principle: On the basis of the above problem select the correct option.
(A) Mr. X is guilty of tax evasion/tax avoidance.
✓ (B) Mr. X is not guilty of either tax evasion/tax avoidance.
(C) No tax deduction can be availed under Section 80 C.
(D) It is an unlawful act to treat a personal expenditure.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mr. X’s action of depositing Rs. 65,000 in a 5-year term deposit with the Post Office to avail tax deductions under Section 80C is a legitimate and lawful way to reduce his tax liability. Tax evasion involves illegal activities to avoid paying taxes, such as not reporting income or filing false returns. Tax avoidance refers to legal methods of reducing one’s tax liability. Mr. X is utilizing a legal provision to reduce his tax burden, which is not considered tax evasion or avoidance.
Q87. Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: Agricultural income is exempt from tax under Section 10(1) of Income Tax Act, 1961. Statement 2: Tax on Non-Agricultural in case of Non-Agricultural Income exceeds Basic Exemption limit and Agricultural Income exceeds Rs. 5000/- is determined by Scheme of Partial Integration of Non-Agricultural Income with Agricultural Income.
(A) Both the Statements are incorrect.
✓ (B) Only Statement 1 is true.
(C) Only Statement 2 is true.
(D) Both the Statements are correct.
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Agricultural income is not taxable under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act as it is not counted as a part of an individual’s total income.
Q88. Rent-Free Accommodation provided by an employer to employee is _____.
(A) Perquisite as per Section 17(2) of the Income Tax Act.
✓ (B) Perquisite as per Section 16(2) of the Income Tax Act.
(C) Allowance under Section 10(13A) of the Income Tax Act
(D) Allowance under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act
Answer: (B)
Explanation: This is because rent-free accommodation is a perquisite offered to an employee by an employer, which is taxable under the head of income ‘Salaries’, according to the IT Act.
Section 12: Contract, Property & Intellectual Property Law (Q89–100)
Q89. An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under _______.
(A) Section 2(d)
(B) Section 2(e)
(C) Section 2(f)
✓ (D) Section 2(g)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: An agreement not enforceable by law is stated to be void under Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. This section specifically defines a void agreement as one that is not enforceable by law.
Q90. The concept of invalid guarantee is covered under Sections _______.
(A) 142-146
✓ (B) 142-144
(C) 143-147
(D) 140-143
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The concept of an invalid guarantee is primarily covered under Sections 142 to 144 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. Specifically, Section 142 deals with guarantees obtained by misrepresentation, Section 143 addresses guarantees obtained by concealment, and Section 144 covers guarantees that are conditional on a co-surety joining but where the co-surety does not join.
Q91. “A”, a real estate developer, entered into a contract with “B”, the owner of a piece of prime land, for the purchase of her property. The contract stipulated that “A” would pay Rs. 50 lakhs in advance and the remaining Rs. 1 crore within six months. In return, “B” agreed to transfer the title to the land. However, after receiving the advance payment, “B” refused to execute the sale deed, claiming that she received a better offer from another buyer. “A” demanded the enforcement of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, but “B” denied his claim. “A” has to file a suit in a court of law. On the basis of the above problem, select the correct answer.
(A) “A” may file a suit in the criminal court having the powers under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023.
(B) “A” may file a suit in the special court constituted under the Specific Relief Act, 1963.
✓ (C) “A” may file a suit in the civil court having the powers under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
(D) No suit can be brought against “A” as there is no breach of contract.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: “A” can file a suit for specific performance of the contract under the Specific Relief Act, 1963. Since the contract involves immovable property and “B” has breached the agreement after receiving part payment, “A” has a strong case for seeking a court order compelling “B” to fulfill her contractual obligation to transfer the land.
Q92. “A” transfers a piece of land to “B” on the condition that “B” shall not transfer the land to anyone else for the next 10 years. In this case, “B” has no right to transfer the land to someone else for the next 10 years. Principle: On the basis for the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) It amounts to Conditional Transfer of Property.
(B) It amounts to Conditional Limitations of Transfer of Property.
✓ (C) It amounts to Subsequent Transfer of Property
(D) It amounts to conditions precedent in the Transfer of Property.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A subsequent transfer of property refers to a situation where a property is transferred more than once, often with conditions attached to the initial transfer that could affect the subsequent transfer. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882, addresses these situations, particularly regarding conditional transfers, where the second transfer’s validity might depend on the fulfillment or failure of a condition in the first transfer.
Q93. Mr. Rajesh issued a cheque of Rs. 50,000 to his supplier. Mr. Sharma, for the payment of goods purchased. When Mr. Sharma deposited the cheque, it was returned by the bank with the remark “Insufficient Funds”. Principle: On the basis of the above problem, select the correct option.
(A) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within three months for the dishonour of the cheque.
(B) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within one month for the dishonour of the cheque.
(C) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within five months for the dishonour of the cheque.
✓ (D) A complaint in writing is to be made by Mr. Sharma in the court within two months for the dishonour of the cheque.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: “Insufficient Funds” indicates a bank account balance is too low to cover a transaction, like a check or a debit card purchase. This can also be referred to as Non-Sufficient Funds (NSF). Issuing a check with insufficient funds is not automatically illegal, but failing to rectify the situation after receiving notice can lead to legal consequences.
Q94. Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is related to _______.
(A) Rescission of contracts
✓ (B) Cancellation of instruments
(C) Declaratory decrees
(D) Perpetual injunction
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Section 31 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with cancellation of instruments. Specifically, it outlines the conditions under which a court may order the cancellation of a written instrument, either void or voidable.
Q95. How the recovery of specific immovable property may be enforced?
✓ (A) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by The Specific Relief Act, 1963.
(B) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by The Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(C) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(D) A person entitled to the possession of specific immovable property may recover it in the manner provided by The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Yes, according to Section 5 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963, a person with a right to possess specific immovable property can recover it through legal means, specifically as outlined in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. This means they can file a civil suit to regain possession, rather than resorting to self-help or taking the law into their own hands.
Q96. Which section of Law of Contract defines “A proposal may be revoked at any time, before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.”
✓ (A) Section 5
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 7
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Section 5 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, deals with the revocation of proposals and acceptances. It specifies that a proposal can be revoked anytime before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, and an acceptance can be revoked anytime before the communication of the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor.
Q97. According to the Land Acquisition Act (Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement), 2013, governments can acquire land for: (i) Strategic purposes (ii) Projects for Families Affected by Projects (iii) For public-private partnership projects, where government ownership of land will remain with the Government.
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (i) & (iii)
✓ (D) (i), (ii) & (iii)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to the Land Acquisition Act, 2013, Governments can acquire land for public purposes, including infrastructure, industrialization, and urban development. The Act also covers land acquisition for housing projects, educational institutions, and health facilities. Additionally, land can be acquired for social welfare schemes, development projects by Government or public sector undertakings, and for the planned development of village sites and urban areas.
Q98. Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India has replaced which earlier legislation?
(A) Land Acquisition Act, 1956
(B) Land Acquisition Act, 1862
✓ (C) Land Acquisition Act, 1894
(D) Land Acquisition Act, 1874
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Land Acquisition Act, 2013 in India replaced the Land Acquisition Act, 1894. This new Act, officially known as the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013, was enacted to address the shortcomings of the 1894 Act, particularly in terms of providing fair compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement to landowners and affected families.
Q99. Soham, an independent software developer, created a mobile app called “FitLife” that provides personalized fitness plans. He registered the app’s name and logo under trademark law and copyrighted the app’s source code. However, six months after its launch, Soham discovered a competing app called “FitLyfe”, within a similar logo and features, being marketed by a large tech company. Soham believes the competing app copied elements of his source code and intentionally used a confusingly similar name and logo to mislead customers. Under trademark law, can Soham claim infringement for the use of a similar name and logo by the competing app?
(A) Yes, if he can prove that the names are confusingly similar.
(B) No, because the competing app has a different name and logo.
(C) Yes, but only if the competitor is a smaller business.
✓ (D) No, trademark infringement can only occur if there is identical copying.
Answer: (D)
Explanation: No, trademark infringement does not require identical copying. It can occur even if the infringing mark is only “deceptively similar” to the registered trademark, meaning it is close enough to confuse consumers. The key factor is whether the unauthorized use is likely to cause confusion among consumers about the source of the goods or services.
Q100. What is the duration of copyright protection for literacy works in India?
(A) 50 years from the creation of the work
(B) 60 years from the date of publication
✓ (C) Lifetime of the author plus 60 years
(D) 10 years from the date of first sale
Answer: (C)
Explanation: In India, copyright protection for literary works extends for the lifetime of the author plus 60 years. This means that after the author’s death, the copyright continues to protect the work for an additional 60 years, from the beginning of the calendar year following the year in which the author dies.
